10th Science Study Materials

 

  

State level SSLC preparatory Exam - 3 (2026) Science - Key Answer

      PART - A (PHYSICS)    

  I. Multiple choice questions: 2×1=2

1. The instrument used to measure potential difference and its mode of connection in an electric circuit among the following is 

(A) Ammeter, in series connection 

(B) Voltmeter, in series connection 

(C) Voltmeter, in parallel connection 

(D) Ammeter, in parallel connection

Ans:  (C) Voltmeter, in parallel connection 

2. Observe the following table : 

The correct conclusion related to the given lenses is 

(A) A ; concave lens and B ; convex lens 

(B) A ; convex lens and B ; concave lens 

(C) Both are convex lenses 

(D) Both are concave lenses 

Ans: (B) A ; convex lens and B ; concave lens 

II. Answer the following questions : 

3. State the right hand thumb rule. 

Ans: 

Imagine you are holding a current carrying straight conductor in your right hand such that the thumb is pointing towards the direction of current. Then the fingers wrapped around the conductor give the direction of magnetic field. 

4. Draw the symbol diagram of ‘Variable resistance (Rheostat)’ used in an electric circuit

Ans:

III. Answer the following questions :  

5. List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. 

 Ans: 

★ Length

★ Area of cross section 

★ Temperature 

★ Nature of materials

6. Define the following : 

 i) Tyndall effect 

 ii) Dispersion of light.

Ans: 

i) The scattering of a beam of light by colloidal particles.  

​ii) The splitting of white light into its component colors  when passing through a prism.

7. Observe the given schematic diagram. What is the direction of force acting on the electron ? Justify your conclusion. 

Ans:

★ Into the paper

★ According to Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule 

★ current opposite to electron flow.

IV. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9 

8. What is Myopia ? Mention the causes and remedy for this defect. 

OR 

Stars twinkle but planets do not twinkle. Why ?

Ans:  

★Cannot see distant objects clearly.

Causes:

★ Decrease in focal length

★ Elongation of eyeball

Correction: 

★ Concave lens

OR

★ Stars are point sources far away.

★ Planets closer to the earth than star.

★ Extended source of light from planets nullify the twinkling Effect.

9. How soft iron rod can be converted into an electromagnet using a solenoid ? How can the magnetic field of this electromagnet be increased ? 

OR 

Explain an activity for drawing the field lines around a bar magnet using a compass needle. 

Ans:

★ Insert soft iron rod inside solenoid and pass current.

Increase strength by:

★ Increasing number of turns

★ Increasing current

OR

★ Take a small compass and a bar magnet. Place a magnet on a sheet of white paper fixed on a drawing board. Mark the boundary of the magnet.

★ Place the compass near the north pole of the magnet mark the position of two ends of the needle.

★ Now move the needle to a new position such that the south pole occupies the position previously occupied by its north pole.

★ In this way proceed step by step till we reach the south pole of the magnet. Join the points marked on the paper by a smooth curve. This represents field line.

★ Repeating above procedure we can draw as many lines as possible.

10. Draw the ray diagram that shows the image formed when an object is kept between 2F1 and F1 of a convex lens. Mention the size and position of the image.  

Ans: 

Position of the image-beyond 2F2

Size of the image: Enlarged

V. Answer the following questions :2×4=8 

11. a) The refractive indices of water and ice respectively are 1·33 and 1·31. In which of these two medium the light travels faster ? Why ? 

b) Explain why the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray when light refracts through a rectangular glass slab. 

OR

a) A pencil is partially immersed in water. Then the pencil appears to be bent.Explain this phenomenon. 

b) Write any two differences between spherical mirror and spherical lens.  

Ans:

a) 

★ Light travels faster in ice 

★ because lower refractive index 

b)

★ because the opposite faces of a rectangular glass slab are parallel,.

★ Due to this the refractive index change is equal and opposite at the two parallel air-glass and glass-air interfaces.

OR

a)

The extent of bending of the ray of light at the opposite parallel faces AB (air-glass interface) and CD (glass-air interface) of the rectangular glass slab is equal and opposite. This is why the ray emerges parallel to the incident ray.

b)

Spherical Mirror:

★ Reflects light

★ Concave/Convex mirror

★ 1/v + 1/u = 1/r

Spherical Lens:

★ Refracts light

★ Concave/Convex lens

★ 1/v - 1/u = 1/f

12. Observe the circuit given below. Find the total resistance, total current and power in the circuit. 

Ans:

     PART – B     

    ( CHEMISTRY )    

VI. Multiple choice questions: 3×1=3

13. A compound that reacts with an acid and a base to produce salt and water is 

(A) Aluminium oxide 

(B) Copper oxide 

(C) Iron oxide 

(D) Sodium oxide 

Ans: (A) Aluminium oxide

14. Compound that forms by the reaction between carboxylic acid and alcohol is 

 (A) an aldehyde 

 (B) a ketone 

 (C) a haloalkane 

 (D) an ester 

Ans: (D) an ester

15. Observe the following equations and identify the correct statement with respect to these equations

(A) Copper is more reactive than iron and silver 

(B) Iron is more reactive than copper and silver 

(C) Copper is more reactive than silver but less reactive than iron 

(D) Silver is more reactive than copper and iron

Ans: (C) Copper is more reactive than silver but less reactive than iron

VII. Answer the following questions : 3×1=3 

16. What is rancidity ?

Ans:  The process of oxidation of fats and oils in food, resulting in an unpleasant smell and taste.

17. Write the chemical formula of baking soda. 

Ans: NaHCO3

18. Identify the homologous series among the following. 

Ans: Series - 1

VIII. Answer the following questions : 

19. What is catenation ? Name the simplest hydrocarbon. 

Ans:

★ The unique ability of carbon atoms to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large molecules.

★ Methane

20. How is pure mercury obtained from cinnabar ?

OR

Why fire does not catch up when calcium reacts with water ? 

Ans:

★ cinnabar is heated in air, it is first converted into mercuric oxide (HgO).

★ Mercuric oxide is then reduced to mercury on further heating. /

OR

★ The reaction of calcium with water is less violent. 

★ The heat evolved is not sufficient for the hydrogen to catch fire

21. Analyse the activity depicted in the figure given below. In this activity, when ferrous sulphate crystals are heated does the colour and crystalline nature of it remain same or not ? Support your answer with reason. 

Ans:

★ colour and crystalline nature change.

★ due to loss of water of crystallisation

IX. Answer the following questions : 

22. Translate the following word equations into chemical equations : 

i) Carbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide 

ii) Zinc carbonate → Zinc oxide + Carbon dioxide 

iii) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water 

OR 

Chemical reactions are to be balanced. Why ? Which are the observations that help us to determine that chemical reaction has taken place ? 

Ans: 

i) C + O2 → CO2 

ii) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2 

iii) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O

OR

★ change in colour 

★ evolution of a gas 

★ change in temperature. 

★ change in state. 

23. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of the apparatus used to show the action of steam on metal. Label the following parts. i) Delivery tube ii) Metal sample. 

Ans:

24. a) By using distilled water and concentrated acid, how do you decrease the concentration of the acid ? Explain. 

b) Doctors suggest to take milk of magnesia at the time of indigestion. Why?

Ans:

★ Always add acid to water slowly with constant stirring. 

★ Adding water to concentrated acid can cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns due to the highly exothermic nature.

b)

★ It is a mild base /antacid that neutralizes the excess hydrochloric acid produced in the stomach.

X. Answer the following questions :1×4 =4 

25. a) Carbon atoms neither form C4- anion nor form C4+ cation. Explain. 

b) Write the structural formula of ‘Butyne’ and ‘Cyclohexane’. 

OR 

a) Explain the cleansing action of soap. 

b) Write the differences between saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds. 

Ans:

a)

★ Carbon cannot form C4+ cation because of removal of 4 elections from a carbon atom would require a large amount of energy.

★ Carbon cannot form C4- anion because it would be difficult for the nucleus with 6 protons to hold on to 10 electrons.

b)

Butyne:

Cyclohexane:

OR

a)

★ The molecule of soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids. 

★ Ionic end of soap interacts with water while the carbon chain interacts with oil

★ Soap molecule thus forms a structure called micelle. This forms an emulsion in water. 

★ The micelles thus help in pulling out the dirt in water. 

b)

PART – C

( BIOLOGY )

26. The blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart is

(A) Pulmonary vein

(B) Superior venacava

(C) Aorta

(D) Pulmonary artery

Ans: (C) Aorta

27. The group of organisms that reproduce by fission only, is

(A) Amoeba, Hydra, Spirogyra

(B) Leishmania, Amoeba, Yeast

(C) Amoeba, Plasmodium, Planaria

(D) Plasmodium, Amoeba, Leishmania

Ans:  (D) Plasmodium, Amoeba, Leishmania

28. Observe the structure given in the following figure. The type of tropic

movement that helps the movement of ‘C’ towards ‘B’ here is,

(A) Phototropism  

(B) Chemotropism

(C) Geotropism 

(D) Hydrotropism

Ans:  (B) Chemotropism

XII. Answer the following questions:3×1=3

29. What is heredity ?

Ans: The transmission of characters from parent to their off springs.

30. Observe the following figures. Which figure represents low rate of gaseous

exchange ? Why ?

Ans:  Figure (a) represents a low rate of gaseous exchange because the stomatal pore is closed. 

31. Observe the processes depicted in the given figures. Among the progenies, which of the process (i) causes variations ? (ii) causes similarities ?

Ans: 

(i) Variations: Figure 2  

(ii) Similarities: Figure 1

XIII. Answer the following questions:2x2=4

32. a) What is reflex arc ?

b) Which hormones are responsible for sexual maturation in human beings ?

OR

a) What is the function of neuron ( nerve cell )?

b) Which hormones are responsible for the growth of stem in plants and wilting of leaves ? 

Ans: 

a) The pathway of nerve impulses in a reflex action.

b) 

★ Testosterone in male

★ Oestrogen in female

OR

a) Conducting information via electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.

★ Gibberellin:  growth of stem

★ Abscisic acid : wilting of leaves 

33. Draw the diagram showing the structure of nephron.

Ans: 

XIV. Answer the following questions : 3 × 3 = 9

34. Tall pea plant ( TT ) is hybridised with a short pea plant ( tt ). Express the results obtained in the F2 generation with the help of checker board and write the ratio of the types of plants obtained.

OR

a) How is the sex of a child determined in human beings ? Explain.

b) Write the difference between dominant and recessive hereditary traits.

Ans: 

Phenotypic ratio: 3:1, (3 tall, 1 dwarf)

Genotypic ratio: 1:2:1, (1 pure tall, 2 impure tall,1 pure dwarf)

OR

a) 

★ Woman has a perfect pair of sex chromosomes, both called X. bat.

★ Man has a normal sized chromosome X and another short sized chromosome Y.

★ A child who inherits X chromosome from her father will be a girl 

★ a child who inherits Y chromosome from his father will be a boy. /

b)

Dominant traits:

★ The trait which appears in the F1 progeny

★ More in number

Recessive traits:

★ The trait not appear in the F1 progeny.

★ Less in number

35. Observe the following picture of trophic levels and answer the questions given below : 

i) Organisms of which trophic level have more concentration of harmful chemicals ? Why ? 

ii) Zoo planktons have more energy than the large fish. How ? 

Ans:

i) 

★ T5 / (Eagle) 

★ Due to Biological Magnification.

ii) Energy decreases by 90% at each subsequent level / 10% Law.

35. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human brain. Label the following parts : i)  Pons ii) Cerebrum. 

Ans:

XIV. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9

37. a) Name the transporting tissues in plants. Write their function.

b) Write any four methods used by the plants to eliminate waste materials. 

OR 

a) Name the following : 

i) The site of complete digestion of food in human digestive system 

ii) The organ that secretes bile juice. 

b) What is anaerobic respiration ? Write the products of this respiration. 

Ans:

a)

Xylem: transports water and minerals. 

Phloem:  Transports food.

b)

★ Waste products are stored as resins and gums in old xylems. 

★ Through withering / wilting / shedding of leaves 

★ Excrete some waste substances into the soil around them 

★ Excess of water by transpiration 

★ Oxygen by photosynthesis 

★ Carbon dioxide by respiration ( Any four points )

OR

a)

i) Small intestine 

ii) Liver

b) 

★ Respiration in the absence of oxygen. 

★ Products: Ethanol, CO2, and Energy.

XVI. Answer the following questions : 1×5=5 

38. a) How does an egg in a female develop into a foetus in the uterus ? How does embryo get nourishment in the mother’s womb ? Explain. 

b) Write the function of testes in human male reproductive system. 

OR 

a) Write any four advantages of vegetative propagation. 

b) What is pollination ? What are the changes that occur in a flower after fertilisation?

Ans:

a)

★ The fertilised egg ( Zygote ) starts dividing and forms an embryo. 

★ The embryo is implanted in the lining of the uterus. 

★ It continues to grow and develop organs to become foetus.  

Nourishment : 

★With the help of a special disc shaped tissue called placenta. 

★ It contains villi on the embryo’s side and blood spaces on the mother’s side. 

★This provides glucose and oxygen to the developing embryo. 

b) Production of sperms and secretion of testosterone.

OR

a)

★ Good qualities of a variety can be maintained indefinitely.

★Vegetative propagation gives a genetically uniform population.

★ Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier.

b)

★ The transfer of pollen from the stamen to the stigma.

 Germination of the pollen : Pollen tube develops. 

★ Fertilization : Pollen grain enters the ovary through pollen tube and fuses with the ovum / egg. Zygote is formed. 

★ Ovum develops into seed. Ovary grows rapidly and ripens into fruit.  

★ Petals, sepals, stamen, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off. 

Important MCQ - Class 10 Science

      PHYSICS       

  Electricity  

1. The S I unit of potential difference is 

 (A) volt (V) 

 (B) ampere (A) 

 (C) coulomb (C) 

 (D) ohm meter (Ωm) 

Ans: (A) volt (V) 

2. The S I unit of electric current is 

 (A) ampere (A) 

 (B) ohm (Ω) 

 (C) volt (V) 

 (D) watt (W) 

Ans: (A) ampere (A) 

3. The rate of energy consumed in an electrical circuit is, electric  

 (A) current 

 (B) potential difference 

 (C) resistance 

 (D) power 

Ans: (D) power

4. When three resistors of different resistance are connected in parallel in an electric circuit and switched on, then the quantity that remains the same in all the resistors is 

 (A) current 

 (B) potential difference 

 (C) resistance 

 (D) resistivity 

Ans: (B) potential difference 

5. The SI unit of resistivity is 

 (A) ohm-metre 

 (B) coulomb 

 (C) volt 

 (D) joule 

Ans: (A) ohm-metre

6. The correct formula that shows the relationship between potential difference, electric current and resistance in an electric circuit is 

(A) I = R/V 

 (B) I=VR 

 (C) V=I/R

 (D) R=V/I

Ans: (D) R=V/I

7. A piece of metallic wire of resistance R is cut into 3 equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the total resistance of this combination is Rl, then the value of R : Rl is 

 (A) 1 : 3 

 (B) 9 : 1      

 (C) 1 : 9 

 (D) 3 : 1.

Ans: (B) 9 : 1

8. The resistance of a conductor is 27 Ω . If it is cut into three equal parts and connected in parallel, then its total resistance is 

 (A) 6 Ω 

 (B) 3 Ω

 (C) 9 Ω 

 (D)27 Ω

Ans: (B) 3 Ω

9. SI unit of electric charge is 

 (A) coulomb 

 (B) ampere

 (C) joule 

 (D) volt

Ans. : (A) coulomb   

10. In an electric circuit to get an equivalent resistance Rs four resistors of 2Ω each are first connected in series. Later to get an equivalent resistance of Rp the same resistors are connected in parallel. Then the ratio of Rs/Rp is

 (A) 16 : 1 

 (B) 2 : 1 

 (C) 4 : 1 

 (D) 8 : 1

Ans. : (A) 16 : 1 

11. Ohm's law gives the relationship between 

(A) potential difference and electric charge 

(B) potential difference and resistance

(C) electric current and potential difference

(D) electric current and electric power 

Ans: (C) electric current and potential difference

12. 0·75A current flows through an electric bulb when it is connected to a 220 V generator. Then the electric power of this bulb is 

 (A) 125 W 

 (B) 135 W 

 (C) 165 W 

 (D) 195 W 

Ans. : (C) 165 W 

13. If a device of 840W is to be used with 220V potential difference, then the rate of the fuse that is to be connected in this electrical circuit is 

 (A) 2A 

 (B) 4A 

 (C) 8A 

 (D) 12A 

Ans. : (B) 4A

  Magnetic effects of electric current  

 1. Observe the figure given below. The magnetic field at the centre ‘C’ of circular coil is 

(A) zero 

(B) I 

(C) 2I1 

(D) 2I2

Ans: (A) zero

2. Correct statement with respect to magnetic field in the given diagram is,

(C → Current-carrying solenoid, P and Q → Points inside the solenoid,R→ Point outside the solenoid) The magnetic field

(A) in P is more than in Q

(B) in Q is more than in P

(C) in R is more than in P and in O

(D) in P and in Q is equal.

Ans: (D) in P and in Q is equal.

3. Observe the diagram.

The magnetic poles represented by P and Q respectively are  

(A) south ( ) and south (S)

(B) north ( N ) and south ( S )

(C) north (N) and north (N)

(D) south (S) and north (N)

Ans. :  (A) south (S) and south (S) 

4. Imagine, you are holding a straight current carrying conductor as per the right hand thumb rule. If the thumb is upward, then the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field is 

(A) downward          

(B) upward

(C) anti-clockwise  

(D) clockwise.

Ans. : (C) anti-clockwise

5. In Fleming’s left hand rule the middle finger represents the direction of 

(A) magnetic fieldb                  

(B) current 

(C) movement of conductor  

(D) induced current 

Ans. : (B) current 

6. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current 

(A) is the same at all points 

(B) is zero 

(C) decreases as we move towards its end 

(D) increases as we move towards its end 

Ans. : (A) is the same at all points

7. A current carrying rod is placed between the poles of a horse-shoe magnet. For the maximum displacement of the rod the angle between the direction of electric current and the direction of magnetic field must be 

(A) 0°        

(C) 90°       

(B) 45°        

(D) 180° 

Ans. : (C) 90°

8. In Fleming’s left hand rule, the finger that indicates the direction of the electric current is (

 (A) thumb 

(B) index finger 

(C) middle finger 

(D) little finger 

Ans. : (C) middle finger 

9. If the number of turns in a current carrying circular coil is increased by 10 times, then the producing magnetic field increases by 

 (A) 100 times    

(B) 10 times

(C) 20 times      

(D) 1000 times 

Ans. : (B) 10 times

  LIGHT – REFLECTION AND REFRACTION  

1. The reciprocal of focal length of lens is 

(A) the power of lens

(B) the radius of curvature of lens

(C) equal to the sum of object distance and image distance

(D) equal to the difference between the object distance and image distance

Ans: (A) the power of lens

2. A mirror produces erect and enlarged image of an object. Then the type of mirror and the nature of that image is respectively 

(A) Convex mirror and virtual image

(B) concave mirror and real image

(C) Convex mirror and real image

(D) Concave mirror and virtual image

Ans: (D) Concave mirror and virtual image

3. The diameter of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is 

(A) pole of the mirror 

(B) centre of curvature 

(C) principal axis 

(D) aperture

Ans: (D) aperture

4. The distance between principal focus and the optic centre of the lens is 

(A) Radius of curvature 

(B) Object distance 

(C) Focal length 

(D) Image distance

Ans: (C) Focal length

5. The correct statement among the following related to the concave lens is 

(A) converges the light rays

(B) diverges the light rays

(C) forms inverted image

(D) forms real image.

Ans. : (B) diverges the light rays

6. To get diminished and real image of an object from a convex lens, the object should be placed 

(A) at principal focus F1

(B) between principal focus F1 and 2F1

(C) beyond 2F1

(D) between principal focus F1 and optical centre O.

Ans. : (C) beyond 2F1

7. An object is kept at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The position and nature of the image formed is 

(A) between F and C and inverted

(B) behind the mirror and erect

(C) between F and P and erect

(D) at the centre of curvature and inverted

Ans. : (D) at the centre of curvature and inverted. 

8. To obtain a diminished image of an object from a concave mirror, position of the object should be (F = principal focus, C = centre of curvature, P = pole) (April 2019)

(A) between C and F

(B) beyond C

(C) between P and F

(D) at F 

Ans. : (B) beyond C

9. Identify the emergent ray in the given figure. 

 A) CD 

 (B) BC 

 (C) AB 

 (D) IJ

Ans. : (A) CD  

10. Type of the mirror used in vehicles as rear view mirror is 

 (A) plane mirror 

(B) concave mirror

(C) convex mirror

(D) planoconcave mirror

Ans. : (C) convex mirror.

11. To get virtual and erect image by a convex lens, an object is to be placed 

(A) beyond 2F1

(B) between F1 and 2F1 ]

(C) at focus F1 

(D) between focus F1 and optical centre O 

Ans. : (D) between focus F1 and optical centre O.  

12. Convex mirrors are used in 

 (A) torches 

 (B) rear view mirrors in vehicles 

(C) search-lights 

 (D) shaving mirrors  

Ans. : (B) rear view mirrors of vehicles

  Human Eye and Colorful World       

1. The sky as seen from the surface of the moon appears dark because

(A) only a little of the blue and violet colours are scattered

(B) all the colours are absorbed by the atmosphere present in the moon

(C) all the colours are scattered Total

(D) atmospheric particles needed to scatter the light are not present.

Ans. : (D) atmospheric particles needed to scatter the light are not present.

2. Right statement regarding the colour of the scattered sunlight and the size of scattering atmospheric particles is 

(A) small particles scatter red colour 

(B) big particles scatter blue colour 

(C) big particles scatter violet colour 

(D) too larger particles scatter all colours equally 

Ans. : (D) too larger particles scatter all colours equally 

3. The colour that is least scattered by fog and smoke is 

 (A) orange 

 (B) blue 

 (C) red 

 (D) violet 

Ans. : (C) red 

4. Identify the wrong statement among the following statements regarding refraction and dispersion of light. 

(A) Stars twinkle 

(B) Sky appears blue to an astronaut flying at very high altitudes 

(C) The sun is visible to us about two minutes before the actual sunrise 

(D) Planets do not twinkle 

Ans. : (B) Sky appears blue to an astronaut flying at very high altitudes

5. The crystalline lens of the eye in old age people sometimes becomes milky and cloudy. This condition is called 

(A) Hypermetropia 

(B) Myopia            

(C) Presbyopia 

(D) Cataract

Ans: (D) Cataract

6. The sun is visible to us about two minutes before the actual sunrise and about two minutes even after the actual sunset because of atmospheric 

(A) refraction of light Total 

(B) reflection of light 

(C) scattering of light 

(D) dispersion of light 

Ans. : (A) refraction of light

7. Observe the diagrams given below : 

The correct conclusion that you can draw here is that, the angle of deviation will be 

(A) maximum in Q 

 (B) minimum in P 

(C) more in P than in Q 

(D) more in R than in Q

 Ans. : (A) maximum in Q

     CHEMISTRY     

  Chemical Reactions and Equations  

1. Silver chloride turns grey when exposed to sunlight. This is because silver chloride 

(A) decomposes to form silver. 

(C) combines with oxygen. 

(B) decomposes to form chlorine. 

(D) reacts with atmospheric moisture.

Ans: (A) decomposes to form silver. 

2. The type of chemical reaction in which reactants exchange their ions is 

 

(A) Double displacement 

 

(B) Displacement

 

(C) Decomposition 

 

(D) Combination 

Ans: (A) Double displacement 

3.

Analyse the experiment expressed in the above figure. The molecular formulae of the solution ‘Y’ that gives a yellow colour precipitate by reacting with KI solution and the another product that forms here respectively are. 

(A) Pb(NO3)2 and KNO3 

(B) PbI2 and KNO3 

(C) Pb(NO3)2 and KI 

(D) Pb(NO3)2 and K2SO4   

Ans: (B) PbI2 and KNO3

4. The metal that displaces copper from copper sulphate solution is 

 (A) mercury 

 (B) gold 

 (C) iron

 (D) silver 

Ans. : (C) iron

 

5. The gas liberated at the cathode in the electrolysis of water is

(A) Oxygen 

(B) Hydrogen      

(C) Chlorine 

(D) Nitrogen.  

Ans. : (B) Hydrogen

6. Fe2O3 + 2 Al → Al2O3 + 2 Fe The type of above chemical reaction is (June 2019)

A) combination reaction     

(B) double displacement reaction

(C) decomposition reaction   

(D) displacement reaction

Ans: (D) displacement reaction

7. The reactants that exchange ions by reacting with each other and form a precipitate among the following are

(A) BaCl2 and Na2SO4

(B) Al2O 3 and HCl

(C) NaOH and H2SO4

(D) Na2O and CO2

Ans. : (A) BaCl2 and Na2SO4

8. Chips manufacturers, flush bags of chips with nitrogen gas because, to

(A) prevent corrosion of chips

(B) prevent chips from getting oxidised

(C) make chips undergo rancidity

(D) prevent the chips from getting reduced.

Ans. : (B) prevent chips from getting oxidised

9. A type of chemical reaction in which a single product is formed by two or more reactants is  

(A) chemical decomposition        

(B) chemical combination

(C) chemical displacement           

(D) chemical double displacement 

Ans:  (B) chemical combination

10. Ferrous sulphate crystals lose green colour when heated. Because this compound 

(A) decomposes into simpler products

(B) loses water molecules

(C) releases sulphur dioxide gas

(D) produces brown fumes

Ans. : (B) loses water molecule

11. In the electrolysis of water the gases that are released at cathode and anode and their ratio respectively are, 

(A) Hydrogen:Oxygen ; 1:2               

(B) Oxygen:Hydrogen ; 2:1

(C) Hydrogen : Oxygen : 2:1               

(D) Oxygen : Hydrogen ; 1:2

Ans. : (C) Hydrogen : Oxygen ; 2:1

12. The electrolysis of water to form hydrogen and oxygen gases is 

 (A) an endothermic reaction 

(B) a displacement reaction 

(C) an exothermic reaction 

(D) a redox reaction 

Ans: (A) an endothermic reaction 

13. The reactants that exchange ions by reacting each other and form a precipitate among the following are 

(A) Aluminium oxide and hydrochloric acid 

(B) Sodium hydroxide and sulphuric acid 

(C) Aluminium oxide and hydrochloric acid 

(D) Barium chloride and sodium sulphate 

Ans: (D) Barium chloride and sodium sulphate 

14. ZnO + C → Zn + CO ; the reactants that are oxidised and reduced in this chemical reaction respectively are 

(A) ZnO and C 

(B) C and ZnO 

(C) Zn and CO 

(D) Co and Zn 

Ans: (B) C and ZnO

15. 2AgCl → 2Ag+ Cl; the type of this chemical reaction is 

(A) Combination reaction 

(C) Decomposition reaction 

(B) Displacement reaction 

(D) Double displacement reaction 

Ans: (C) Decomposition reaction 

16. The gas flushed to the bags containing chips is 

(A) Hydrogen  

(B) Oxygen 

(C) Chlorine 

(D) Nitrogen 

Ans. : (D) Nitrogen

17. 

In this chemical reaction, 

(A) hydrogen is reduced to form water

(B) exchange of ions took place between the reactants

(C) copper oxide is oxidised to form copper

(D) copper oxide is reduced to form copper

Ans. : (D) copper oxide is reduced to form copper

18. Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu

The above reaction is an example for 

(A) Endothermic reaction

(B) Precipitation reaction

(C) Displacement reaction

(D) Double displacement reaction

Ans. :  (C) Displacement reaction

    Acids, Bases and Salts   

1. The chemical formula of bleaching powder is

(A) NaCl 

(B) Na2CO3 

(C) CaCO3 

(D) CaOCl2

Ans: (D) CaOCl2

2. As the pH value of a neutral solution increase, 

(A) basic property decreases and number of OH− ions increases.

(B) acidic property increases and number of H+ ions decreases.

(C) basic property increases and number of OH− ions increases.

(D) acidic property decreases and number of H+ ions increases.

Ans: (C) basic property increases and number of OH− ions increases.

3. When CO2 gas is passed through a clear solution of X, this solution milky. When CO2 supply is continued, this milky solution turns clear solution due to the formation of salt Y. In this reaction X and Y is. 

(A) Calcium carbonate and calcium hydroxide

(B) Calcium hydrogen carbonate and calcium chloride

(C) Calcium hydroxide and calcium hydrogen carbonate

(D) Calcium carbonate and calcium hydrogen carbonate

Ans: (C) Calcium hydroxide and calcium hydrogen carbonate

4. The chemical equation that represents neutralization reaction among the following is  

Ans: C

5. As the pH value of a solution increases. 

A) number of H+ ions increases

B) number of OH– ions increases

C) number of OH– ions decreases

D) equal number of H+ and OH– ions

Ans: B) number of OH– ions increases

6. The gas liberated when an acid reacts with a metal is: 

A. Hydrogen                  

B. Chlorine

C. Carbon dioxide        

D. Nitrogen dioxide

Ans: A. Hydrogen

7. The substance that converts red litmus paper into blue colour is 

(A) KOH Solution

(B) distilled water

(C) dilute solution of HCl

(D) concentrated solution of HNO3

 

Ans : (A) KOH Solution

8. The pH value of a solution that turns blue litmus paper into red colour is 

(A) 5        

(B) 7    

(C) 9       

(D) 14

Ans. :   (A) 5

9. A salt used to remove the permanent hardness of water is

(A) calcium sulphate hemihydrate 

(B) calcium oxychloride 

(C) sodium carbonate

(D) sodium hydrogen carbonate

Ans: (C) sodium carbonate

10. When excess of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in the same basic solution then

(A) the concentration of OH − ions increases 

(B) the concentration of H3O+ ions increases

(C) the pH value of the solution decreases 

(D) the concentration of OH − ions decreases.

Ans: (A) the concentration of OH − ions increases 

   Metals and Non Metals  

1. The constituent metals in brass are 

(A) copper and zinc 

(B) aluminium and tin 

(C) copper and tin 

(D) zinc and aluminium

Ans: (A) copper and zinc 

2. To make iron to be hard and strong 

(A) carbon is added to pure iron 

(B) zinc is added to pure iron

(C) fused with some other metals 

(D) anodization will be done

Ans: (A) carbon is added to pure iron

3. CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu

2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 +2Ag

(A) Copper is more reactive than iron and silver

(B) Iron is less reactive than copper and silver

(C) Copper is more reactive than silver but less reactive than iron

(D) Silver is more reactive than copper and iron.

Ans: (C) Copper is more reactive than silver but less reactive than iron

4. To make pure iron hard and strong, the substance that is to be added to it is

 

(A) carbon 

(B) zinc 

(C) nickel 

(D) tin

Ans: (A) carbon

5. A + Salt solution of B → Salt solution of A + B. A and B in this word equation are metals. These metals respectively are 

(A) copper and sodium 

(B) lead and aluminium

(C) Hydrogen with oxygen 

(D) magnesium and zinc

Ans: (D) magnesium and zinc

6. The possible chemical reaction among the following is 

Ans:  C

7. The electronic configuration of element X is 2, 8, 8, 1 and the electronic configuration of element Y is 2, 8, 7. Then the type of bond formed between these two elements is 

(A) covalent bond   

(B) hydrogen bond

(C) metallic bond    

(D) ionic bond

Ans: (D) ionic bond

8. The amphoteric oxide among the following is 

A) Potassium oxide   

B) Sodium oxide 

C) Calcium oxide        

D) Zinc oxide

Ans: D) Zinc oxide

9. Which of the following will give displacement reactions? 

 A) NaCl solution and Copper metal.

B) MgCl2 solution and Aluminium metal.     

C) FeSO4 solution and Silver metal.

D) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal.

Ans: D) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal.

10. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air; this is due to the formation of

a) silver sulphide

b) silver nitride

c)silver carbonate

d) silver oxide

Ans: a) silver sulphide

11. Aluminium, Iron, Magnesium and Zinc metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid. The series that indicates decreasing order of reactivity of these metals is 

(A) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe 

(B) Al > Mg > Fe > Zn 

(C) Fe > Zn > Al > Mg 

(D) Fe > Mg > Zn > Al

Ans. :  (A) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe 

12. The electronic configuration of the three elements P, Q and R respectively are 2, 8, 2 ; 2, 8 and 2, 8, 7. Among these, the elements that can react with each other to produce an ionic compound are 

(A) P and Q        

(B) P and R 

 (C) Q and R       

(D) P, Q and R 

Ans. : (B) P and R 

13. The metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature is (July 2023)

 (A) Mercury          (B) Silver 

(C) Sodium            (D) Gold 

Ans. : (A) Mercury 

14. An alloy that is made up of copper and zinc is

 (A) solder metal   

(B) bronze 

 (C) brass               

(D) stainless steel

Ans: (C) brass

15. The gas liberated when sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is

(A) Carbon dioxide 

(B) Nitrogen 

(C) Hydrogen 

(D) Nitrogen dioxide

Ans: (A) Carbon dioxide 

16. Electronic configurations of the elements A, B and C respectively are 2, 8, 2 ; 2, 8 and 2, 8, 7. Among these the elements that can react each other to form an ionic compound are

(A) Elements A and B 

(B) Elements B and C 

(C) Elements A and C 

(D) Elements A, B and C

Ans: (C) Elements A and C

  CARBON AND IT'S COMPOUNDS   

1. A property of carbon that is responsible for giving rise large molecules is 

(A) tetravalency 

(B) catenation 

(C) inflammability 

(D) allotropism

Ans: (B) catenation 

2. The functional group present in pentanal is

(A) - OH 

(B) - CHO 

(C) - COOH 

(D) - CO -

Ans: (B) - CHO 

3. Another structure with the same molecular formula of the compound in the following structural Formulas 

Ans: (D)

4. The ′𝒙′ in the following reaction represents, 

(A) K2Cr2O7 

(B) KMnO4 

(C) NaOH 

(D) KOH

Ans: (B) KMnO4 

5. Number of single bonds found in the molecular structure of propanal is 

 (A) 8      

(C) 7    

(B) 6    

(D) 5

Ans. : (A) 8

6. Identify the correct electron dot structure of nitrogen molecule in the following 

7. The name and the molecular formula of the unsaturated hydrocarbon having general formula CnHn2 and containing 3 carbon atoms is 

(A) propane, C3H8

(B) Cyclopropane, C3H6

(C) Propyne, C3H4   

(D) Propene, C3H6

Ans. : (D) Propene, C3H6.

8. An example for saturated hydrocarbon is

(A) C2H6   

(B) C3H4   

(C) C2H2 

(D)  C2H4

Ans. : (A) C2H6

9. The molecular formula of three carbon compounds which are in homologous series are C2H6, C3H8, C4H10. The suitable general formula for these compounds is 

10. The functional groups present in propanol and propanal respectively are

(A) — OH  and  — CHO

(B) — OH  and  — COOH

(C) — CHO  and  — COOH

(D) — CHO  and  — CO

Ans:  (A) — OH  and  — CHO

11. The hydrocarbon that undergoes addition reaction among the following is 

A. C2 H6   

B. C3 H8    

C. CH4  

D. C3 H6

Ans: D. C3 H6

12.                                                                                                

13. Organic compounds obtained by the reaction between carboxylic acid and alcohol are 

(A) Aldehydes     

(B) Ketones

 

(C) Esters              

(D) Hydrocarbons

 

Ans. : (C) Esters 

14. The molecular formula of propanal is 

15. Correct statement related to the soaps among the following is, soaps 

(A) easily give excess of foam in hard water

 

(B) form insoluble precipitate in hard water

 

(C) easily clean oils like dirt in hard water

 

(D) are sodium salts of sulphonic acid 

Ans. : (B) form insoluble precipitate in hard water 

16. In a homologous series of compounds containing alcohols, the first member is CH3OH. Then the third member of the same series will be 

       BIOLOGY      

    Life Processes    

1. An enzyme that secretes by the pancreas to digest protein is 

(A) amylase 

(B) pepsin 

(C) trypsin 

(D) lipase

Ans: (C) trypsin 

2. The correct statement regarding bile juice among the following is, this juice is secreted by the

(A) stomach and acidifies food. 

(B) stomach and alkalises food.

(C) liver and alkalises food. 

(D) pancreas and alkalises food.

Ans: (C) liver and alkalises food. 

3. The function of stomata among the following is 

(A) Exchange of gases

(B) Transportation of water and food

(C) Preparation of food

(D) Establishing osmotic pressure

Ans: (A) Exchange of gases

4. An incorrect statement related to the transpiration among the following is; this process

(A) Creates osmotic pressure for the movement of food molecules

(B) Helps in the absorption and movement of salts from the roots

(C) Creates suction force for the movement of water molecules

(D) Balances water level in a plant body

Ans: (A) Creates osmotic pressure for the movement of food molecules

5. A person runs immediately after seeing a snake, later experiences cramps in his leg muscles. Because, in the muscles 

(A) carbon dioxide and ethanol will form 

(B) pyruvate converts into lactic acid

(C) glucose is converted to pyruvate 

(D) amount of oxygen increases

Ans: (B) pyruvate converts into lactic acid

6. The correct statement related to digestion in small intestine is 

(A) acidic food is made alkaline by bile juice

(B) food is made acidic by hydrochloric acid

(C) starch is digested due to the action of amylase

(D) protein is digested due to the action of pepsin.

Ans: (A) acidic food is made alkaline by bile juice

7. The blood vessels that carry blood from all parts of the human body to the heart are 

(A) arteries 

(B) capillaries

(C) pulmonary arteries 

(D) veins

Ans: (D) veins

8. The site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats is 

(A) stomach 

(B) large intestine

(C) small intestine 

(D) liver.

Ans: (C) small intestine

10. Plants can get rid of excess of water by this process 

(A) Transpiration 

(B) Photosynthesis

(C) Respiration 

(D) Translocation

Ans: (A) Transpiration

11. The blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs in the human body are 

(A) Pulmonary veins 

(B) Aorta

(C) Veins 

(D) Pulmonary arteries

Ans: (D) Pulmonary arteries

12. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis in plants is

(A) Transpiration 

(B) Osmosis

(C) Diffusion 

 (D) Translocation

Ans: (D) Translocation

13. In plants the major function of xylem is the transportation of

(A) water 

(B) food

(C) amino acids 

 (D) oxygen.

Ans: (A) water 

14. Suction pressure in plants is required to, 

(A) remove the difference in concentrations of ions between the root and soil 

(B) transport food in two directions 

(C) take up the water to the highest parts 

(D) eliminate excess of water from the leaves 

Ans. : (C) take up the water to the highest parts

15. Small intestine: Villi :: Lungs:.........

(A) Bronchi 

(B) Alveoli  

(C) Nephrons 

(D) Diaphragm

Ans: (B) Alveoli

  Control and Coordination  

1. Observe the figure given below. The name of the part ‘X’ and its function is 

(A) Neuron; transmits chemicals as electrical impulses

(B) synapse; transmits electrical signals generated at the axon terminal to the dendrite

(C) Neuron; transmits electrical impulses as chemicals

(D) synapse; transmits chemical signals generated at the axon terminal to the dendrite

Ans:  (D) synapse; transmits chemical signals generated at the axon terminal to the dendrite

2. The plant hormone responsible for phototropism in plants is 

(A) Auxin 

(B) Cytokinin 

(C) Abscisic acid 

 (D) Gibberellin

Ans: (A) Auxin 

3. The correct path of the movement of nerve impulses in the following diagram is 

A) Q → S → R → P

(B) S → R → Q → P

(C) P → Q → R → S

(D) P → R → S → Q

Ans: (D) P → R → S → Q

4. The incorrect statement related to thyroxine hormone among the following is 

(A) it regulates fat metabolism

(B) its deficiency leads to goitre

(C) it is secreted by parathyroid gland

(D) iodine in the food is essential for its production.

Ans: (C) it is secreted by parathyroid gland

5. The hormone that regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the human body is 

(A) Testosterone 

(B) Adrenaline

(C) Insulin 

(D) Thyroxin

Ans: (D) Thyroxin 

6. A pot that has growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning candle is placed near it for a few days. The top part of the seedling bends towards the light of burning candle. This is 

(A) Chemotropism 

(B) Phototropism 

(C) Geotropism 

(D) Hydrotropism

Ans: (B) Phototropism

7. The gap between two neurons is 

(A) dendrite 

(B) axon

(C) synapse 

(D) cell body

Ans: (C) synapse

8. A plant hormone that inhibits the growth of plants is 

(A) Auxin 

(B) Gibberellin

(C) Cytokinin 

(D) Abscisic acid

Ans: (D) Abscisic acid

9. The centre of reflex action is

(A) Cerebrum 

(B) Spinal cord

 (C) Cerebellum 

 (D) Hypothalamus

Ans: (B) Spinal cord

10. The correct path of movement of electrical impulse in a neuron is 

(A) Dendrite →Cell body →Axon →Axon end

(B) Axon → Axon end → Dendrite → Cell body

(C) Dendrite → Axon → Cell body →Axon end

(D) Cell body → Dendrite → Axon end → Axon

Ans: (A) Dendrite →Cell body →Axon →Axon end

11. An example for positive geotropism in plants is 

(A) growth of shoot

(B) growth of tendrils of creepers

(C) growth of roots into deep soil

(D) upward growth of roots.

Ans: (C) growth of roots into deep soil

12. A person immediately starts running soon after observing a snake.” The correct transmission path of reflex impulse in this situation is 

(A) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Brain → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector

(B) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector

(C) Effector → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Receptor

(D) Effector → Motor neuron→ Relay neuron → Brain → Sensory neuron → Receptor

Ans.: (B) Receptor → Sensory neuron→ Spinal cord → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector

13. The hormone secreted by the pancreas, 

(A) regulates metabolic activities 

(B) regulates blood sugar level 

(C) stimulates the growth in the body organs 

(D) increases breathing rate 

Ans. : (B) regulates blood sugar level 

14. Blood sugar level increases : Under secretion of insulin hormone :: Swelling of the neck : ..................... .

(A) Under secretion of thyroxine hormone

(B) More secretion of insulin hormone

(C) More secretion of thyroxine hormone

(D) Excess intake of iodine.

Ans. : (A) Under secretion of thyroxine hormone 

15. The upward growth of the shoot in plants is 

(A) negative geotropism and positive hydrotropism 

(B) positive geotropism and negative hydrotropism 

(C) negative phototropism and positive geotropism 

(D) negative geotropism and positive phototropism 

Ans. : (D) negative geotropism and positive phototropism 

  How Do Organisms Reproduce   

1. Observe the figure below. The characteristic and function of the structure ‘X’ are respectively 

(A) wall is absent and pollinates.

(B) it has a thick wall and grows into a new rhizopus.

(C) it has a thin wall and grows into a new rhizopus.

(D) it has a thick wall and pollinates.

Ans: (B) it has a thick wall and grows into a new rhizopus.

2. A common bacterial infection that spreads through sexual contact in human beings is 

(A) Gonorrhoea 

(B) AIDS 

(C) Hepatitis B 

 (D) Warts

Ans: (A) Gonorrhoea 

3. The process of producing new individuals in rhizopus is 

(A) spore formation 

(B) fragmentation 

(C) budding 

(D) regeneration

Ans: (A) spore formation 

4. Part of flower that develops into fruit and part of the seed that develops into root respectively are 

(A) Ovary and Plumule 

(B) Plumule and radicle 

(C) Ovary and radicle 

(D) Ovary and ovule

Ans: (C) Ovary and radicle

5. Organisms that reproduce sexually are more likely to survive in their environment. Because in sexual reproduction these organisms, 

(A) do not produce any variations.

(B) will not have any errors during DNA replication.

(C) will have the same body structure in all generations.

(D) will have the maximum number of successful variations in the subsequent generations.

Ans: (D) will have the maximum number of successful variations in the subsequent generations.

6. the sequential stages that occur in the sexual reproduction of flowering plants are 

(A) pollination, fertilization, seed, embryo

(B) seed, embryo, fertilization, pollination

(C) embryo, seed, pollination, fertilization

(D) pollination, fertilization, embryo, seed

Ans: (D) pollination, fertilization, embryo, seed

7. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood with the help of special structure called 

(A) Fallopian tube

(B) Ovary

(C) Uterus

(D) Placenta

Ans: (D) Placenta

8. In the given figure of Cotyledon the parts labelled as A and B respectively are 

(A) fruit, shoot 

(B) primary shoot, primary root

(C) secondary root, primary shoot

(D) bud, leaf.

Ans: (B) primary shoot, primary root

9. The common passage for both sperms and urine in human male reproductive system is (July 2021)

(A) Urethra 

(C) Vas deferens

(B) Ureter 

(D) Urinary bladder

Ans: (A) Urethra

10. The parts that develop into fruit and seed in a flower respectively are

(A) stamen and ovary   

(B) ovary and ovule

(C) ovule and ovary

(D) stamen and ovule

Ans: (B) ovary and ovule

11. In the human female reproductive system, the egg is carried from ovary to the uterus through this part

(A) cervix 

(B) fallopian tube

(C) placenta 

(D) vagina

Ans: (B) fallopian tube

12. A common bacterial infection that spreads through sexual contact in human beings is (Sep 2021)

(A) Gonorrhea 

(B) AIDS

(C) Hepatitis-B 

(D) Warts

Ans: (A) Gonorrhea

13. In humans, sexually transmitted viral infection is 

(A) AIDS 

(B) Syphilis

(C) Tuberculosis 

(D) Gonorrhea

Ans: (A) AIDS

14. Part of a flower in the plant that develops into fruit is 

(A) petal 

(B) stigma

(C) ovary 

(D) style.

Ans: (C) ovary

15. AIDS : Virus : : Warts : _____

(A) Bacteria 

(B) Fungus

(C) Protozoan 

(D) Virus

Ans: (D) Virus

16. In humans, the testes are located outside the lower abdomen in the scrotum because 

(A) to protect testes from mechanical shocks 

(B) to increase the production of sperms 

(C) to maintain the secretion of testosterone hormone 

(D) to maintain the temperature required for sperm production. 

Ans. : (D) to maintain the temperature required for sperm production. 

17. Biological process that has been shown in the diagram is 

(A) production of progenies by fragmentation method

(B) production of progenies by multiple fission method

(C) regeneration of tissues by development in specialised cells

(D) asexual reproduction by vegetative propagation.

Ans. : (C) regeneration of tissues by development in specialised cells

18. The flower that can undergo self pollination among below given figures of flower is

(A) ‘P’ only Total 

(B) ‘R’ only 

(C) Both ‘P’ and ‘R’ 

(D) ‘Q’ only 

 Ans. : (D) ‘Q’ only 

19. The type of reproduction during plasmodium is

(A) budding       

(B) fragmentation

(C) vegetative propagation 

(D) multiple fission

Ans: (D) multiple fission

20. Observe the female reproductive structures given in figure A and figure B. The correct statement related to these figure is. 

(A) Fertilization of egg is possible in both of the structures

(B) Fertilization of egg is possible only in the structure of figure-B

(C) Fertilization of egg is possible only in the structure of figure-A

(D) Fertilization of egg is not possible in both of the structures.

Ans: (C) Fertilization of egg is possible only in the structure of figure-A

21. Type of asexual reproduction that occurs in spirogyra is 

(A) Budding 

(B) Regeneration 

(C) Binary fission 

(D) Fragmentation

Ans. : (D) Fragmentation  

22. The information source for making proteins in the cells is 

(A) Gene 

(B) Chromosome   

(C) DNA 

(D) Ribosome 

Ans. : (C) DNA 

23. The part of the male reproductive system that produces sperms is 

(A) Seminal vesicle 

(B) Testis 

(C) Scrotum 

(D) Penis

Ans. : (B) Testis 

   HEREDITY   

1. In a zygote there are 24 pairs of chromosomes. Then the number of chromosomes present in the gametes are 

 (A) 24 pairs 

 (B) 48 

 (C) 6 pairs 

 (D) 24 

Ans: (D) 24

 2. The correct statement is about gene among the following is/are 

 (i) It is an unit of DNA. 

 (ii) It is the source of information for protein.

(iii) A single gene synthesizes several proteins. 

 (iv) It functions as an enzyme. 

(A) (i) only 

(B) (i) and (ii) only 

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only 

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only 

Ans: (B) (i) and (ii) only

3. The generation in which Mendel performed cross pollination is 

(A) Parent 

(B) Ovary 

(C) F2 

(D) F3 

Ans: (A) Parent

4.  A pure dominant pea plant producing round - yellow seeds is crossed with pure recessive pea plant producing wrinkled - green seeds. The number of plants bearing round - green seeds in the F1 generation of Mendel‘s experiment is 

(A) 0 

(B) 1 

(C) 3 

(D) 9     

Ans: (A) 0

5. Observe the table which shows contrast forms of pea plants  

The genetic makeup with green seed and terminal flowers is indicated as 

(A) gGAa 

(B) GgAa 

(C) GgAA 

(D) Ggaa

Ans: (D) Ggaa

6. If a round green seeded pea plant [ RRyy ] is crossed with wrinkled yellow seeded pea plant [ rrYY ], the seeds produced in F1 generation are 

(A) round and green seeds

(B) round and yellow seeds

(C) wrinkled and yellow seeds

(D) wrinkled and green seeds

Ans: (B) round and yellow seeds

7. Tall pea plants having round seeds ( TTRR ) are crossed with dwarf pea plants having wrinkled seeds ( ttrr ). The progeny obtained in F1 generation is 

(A) Tall plants having wrinkled seeds

(B) Dwarf plants having round seeds

(C) Tall plants having round seeds

(D) Dwarf plants having wrinkled seeds

Ans: (C) Tall plants having round seeds

8. The genotypic ratio of F2 generation of Mendel‘s monohybrid cross experiment is 

(A) 3 : 1 

(B) 1 : 2 : 1

(C) 2 : 1 

(D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 

Ans: (B) 1 : 2 : 1

9. A trait that cannot be inherited among the following is

(A) Shape of the eye 

(B) Colour of the hair 

(C) Type of the blood group 

(D) Playing skills

Ans: (D) Playing skills

10. If a trait is appeared in the progenies of many generations, then the trait must be

(A) dominant trait 

(B) recessive trait 

(C) acquired trait 

(D) intermediate trait

Ans: (A) dominant trait 

   Our Environment   

1. Observe the food chain given below :Grass → Grass hopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle. If the energy available at first tropic level is 5000 J, then the amount of energy available for snake is 

(A) 500J 

(B) 5J 

(C) 0·5J 

(D) 50j

Ans: (B) 5J

2. The correct statement with respect to biodegradable substances among the following. These substances 

(A) undergo recycling naturally in the environment

(B) harm various organisms in the ecosystem

(C) increase the density of harmful chemicals in different tropic levels

(D) remain inert in the environment for a long time

Ans: (A) undergo recycling naturally in the environment

3. The materials that change slowly their form and structure in the environment are (Sep 2021)

(A) Plant fibres

(B) Peels of vegetables

(C) Waste papers

(D) Used tea leaves

Ans: (A) Plant fibres

4. Atmospheric layer that absorbs ultraviolet radiations coming from the sunlight is made up of this molecule. 

(A) N2 

(B) H2 

(C) O3 

(D) O2

Ans: (C) O3

5. Primary consumers in any food chain are always 

(A) carnivores

(B) herbivores

(C) higher carnivores

(D) producers.

Ans: (B) herbivores

6. The materials that take more time to change their forms and structure are 

(A) DDT, BHC, Insecticide

(B) Waste paper, torn cotton clothes

(C) Vegetable peels, used tea leaves

(D) Medicine bottle, milk pocket 

Ans: (A) DDT ,BHC ,insecticides

7. Algae → Small insects → Large insects → Small fish → Large fish → Human. The arrangement of trophic levels in this food chain are in the 

(A) increasing order of energy availability.

(B) increasing order of both energy availability and storage of harmful chemicals.

(C) increasing order of storage of harmful chemicals.

(D) decreasing order of both energy availability and storage of harmful chemicals. 

Ans: (C) increasing order of storage of harmful chemicals.

8. Producers of aquatic eco-system are (June 2023)

(A) algae         

(B) small fishes       

C) larvae        

(D) protozoa.

Ans. : (A) algae

9. Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle ; The secondary consumer in this food chain is 

(A) Grasshopper Total 

(B) Snake 

(C) Frog 

(D) Eagle

Ans. : (C) Frog 

10. The second trophic level of a food chain consists of

 (A) Producers 

(B) Herbivores 

(C) Secondary consumer 

(D) Primary carnivores

Ans: (B) Herbivores