Important Diagrams - Class 10 Science

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Important MCQ - Class 10 Science BIOLOGY

        BIOLOGY      

    Life Processes    

Q1. An enzyme that secretes by the pancreas to digest protein is 

(A) amylase 

(B) pepsin 

(C) trypsin 

(D) lipase

Ans: (C) trypsin 

Q2. The correct statement regarding bile juice among the following is, this juice is secreted by the

(A) stomach and acidifies food. 

(B) stomach and alkalises food.

(C) liver and alkalises food. 

(D) pancreas and alkalises food.

Ans: (C) liver and alkalises food. 

Q3. The function of stomata among the following is 

(A) Exchange of gases

(B) Transportation of water and food

(C) Preparation of food

(D) Establishing osmotic pressure

Ans: (A) Exchange of gases

Q4. An incorrect statement related to the transpiration among the following is; this process

(A) Creates osmotic pressure for the movement of food molecules

(B) Helps in the absorption and movement of salts from the roots

(C) Creates suction force for the movement of water molecules

(D) Balances water level in a plant body

Ans: (A) Creates osmotic pressure for the movement of food molecules

Q5. A person runs immediately after seeing a snake, later experiences cramps in his leg muscles. Because, in the muscles 

(A) carbon dioxide and ethanol will form 

(B) pyruvate converts into lactic acid

(C) glucose is converted to pyruvate 

(D) amount of oxygen increases

Ans: (B) pyruvate converts into lactic acid

Q6. The correct statement related to digestion in small intestine is 

(A) acidic food is made alkaline by bile juice

(B) food is made acidic by hydrochloric acid

(C) starch is digested due to the action of amylase

(D) protein is digested due to the action of pepsin.

Ans: (A) acidic food is made alkaline by bile juice

Q7. The blood vessels that carry blood from all parts of the human body to the heart are 

(A) arteries 

(B) capillaries

(C) pulmonary arteries 

(D) veins

Ans: (D) veins

Q8. The site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats is 

(A) stomach 

(B) large intestine

(C) small intestine 

(D) liver.

Ans: (C) small intestine

Q10. Plants can get rid of excess of water by this process 

(A) Transpiration 

(B) Photosynthesis

(C) Respiration 

(D) Translocation

Ans: (A) Transpiration

Q11. The blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs in the human body are 

(A) Pulmonary veins 

(B) Aorta

(C) Veins 

(D) Pulmonary arteries

Ans: (D) Pulmonary arteries

Q12. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis in plants is

(A) Transpiration 

(B) Osmosis

(C) Diffusion 

 (D) Translocation

Ans: (D) Translocation

Q13. In plants the major function of xylem is the transportation of

(A) water 

(B) food

(C) amino acids 

(D) oxygen.

Ans: (A) water 

Q14. Suction pressure in plants is required to, 

(A) remove the difference in concentrations of ions between the root and soil 

(B) transport food in two directions 

(C) take up the water to the highest parts 

(D) eliminate excess of water from the leaves 

Ans. : (C) take up the water to the highest parts

Q15. Small intestine: Villi :: Lungs:.........

(A) Bronchi 

(B) Alveoli  

(C) Nephrons 

(D) Diaphragm

Ans: (B) Alveoli

Q16. The important role of stomata in transportation of water is 

(A) performing continuous transpiration 

(B) absorbing carbon dioxide 

(C) releasing oxygen

(D) creating upward tension 

Ans. : (D) creating upward tension 

Q17. As the food moves forward in the human digestive system the enzymes that help for the digestion respectively are 

(A) Pepsin → Trypsin → Lypase 

(B) Amylase → Pepsin → Lypase 

(C) Lypase → Amylase → Trypsin 

(D) Trypsin → Pepsin → Amylase Total 

Ans. : (B) Amylase → Pepsin → Lypase 

Q18.The structural and functional unit of kidney is 

(A) Neuron 

(B) Nephron 

(C) Cyton 

(D) Muscle cell 

Ans. : (B) Nephron 

 

  Control and Coordination  

Q1. Observe the figure given below. The name of the part ‘X’ and its function is 

(A) Neuron; transmits chemicals as electrical impulses

(B) synapse; transmits electrical signals generated at the axon terminal to the dendrite

(C) Neuron; transmits electrical impulses as chemicals

(D) synapse; transmits chemical signals generated at the axon terminal to the dendrite

Ans:  (D) synapse; transmits chemical signals generated at the axon terminal to the dendrite

Q2. The plant hormone responsible for phototropism in plants is 

(A) Auxin 

(B) Cytokinin 

(C) Abscisic acid 

 (D) Gibberellin

Ans: (A) Auxin 

Q3. The correct path of the movement of nerve impulses in the following diagram is 

A) Q → S → R → P

(B) S → R → Q → P

(C) P → Q → R → S

(D) P → R → S → Q

Ans: (D) P → R → S → Q

Q4. The incorrect statement related to thyroxine hormone among the following is 

(A) it regulates fat metabolism

(B) its deficiency leads to goitre

(C) it is secreted by parathyroid gland

(D) iodine in the food is essential for its production.

Ans: (C) it is secreted by parathyroid gland

Q5. The hormone that regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the human body is 

(A) Testosterone 

(B) Adrenaline

(C) Insulin 

(D) Thyroxin

Ans: (D) Thyroxin 

Q6. A pot that has growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning candle is placed near it for a few days. The top part of the seedling bends towards the light of burning candle. This is 

(A) Chemotropism 

(B) Phototropism 

(C) Geotropism 

(D) Hydrotropism

Ans: (B) Phototropism

Q7. The gap between two neurons is 

(A) dendrite 

(B) axon

(C) synapse 

(D) cell body

Ans: (C) synapse

Q8. A plant hormone that inhibits the growth of plants is 

(A) Auxin 

(B) Gibberellin

(C) Cytokinin 

(D) Abscisic acid

Ans: (D) Abscisic acid

Q9. The centre of reflex action is

(A) Cerebrum 

(B) Spinal cord

 (C) Cerebellum 

 (D) Hypothalamus

Ans: (B) Spinal cord

Q10. The correct path of movement of electrical impulse in a neuron is 

(A) Dendrite →Cell body →Axon →Axon end

(B) Axon → Axon end → Dendrite → Cell body

(C) Dendrite → Axon → Cell body →Axon end

(D) Cell body → Dendrite → Axon end → Axon

Ans: (A) Dendrite →Cell body →Axon →Axon end

Q11. An example for positive geotropism in plants is 

(A) growth of shoot

(B) growth of tendrils of creepers

(C) growth of roots into deep soil

(D) upward growth of roots.

Ans: (C) growth of roots into deep soil

Q12. A person immediately starts running soon after observing a snake.” The correct transmission path of reflex impulse in this situation is 

(A) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Brain → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector

(B) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector

(C) Effector → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Receptor

(D) Effector → Motor neuron→ Relay neuron → Brain → Sensory neuron → Receptor

Ans.: (B) Receptor → Sensory neuron→ Spinal cord → Relay neuron → Motor neuron → Effector

Q13. The hormone secreted by the pancreas, 

(A) regulates metabolic activities 

(B) regulates blood sugar level 

(C) stimulates the growth in the body organs 

(D) increases breathing rate 

Ans. : (B) regulates blood sugar level 

Q14. Blood sugar level increases : Under secretion of insulin hormone :: Swelling of the neck : ..................... .

(A) Under secretion of thyroxine hormone

(B) More secretion of insulin hormone

(C) More secretion of thyroxine hormone

(D) Excess intake of iodine.

Ans. : (A) Under secretion of thyroxine hormone 

Q15. The upward growth of the shoot in plants is 

(A) negative geotropism and positive hydrotropism 

(B) positive geotropism and negative hydrotropism 

(C) negative phototropism and positive geotropism 

(D) negative geotropism and positive phototropism 

Ans. : (D) negative geotropism and positive phototropism 

Q16. Observe the given diagram. The response shown by part X is

A) Positive thigmotropism and directional movement 

(B) Positive geotropism and independent movement 

(C) Positive phototropism and non-directional movement 

 (D) Positive chemotropism and independent movement 

Ans. : (A) Positive thigmotropism and directional movement 

  How Do Organisms Reproduce   

Q1. Observe the figure below. The characteristic and function of the structure ‘X’ are respectively 

(A) wall is absent and pollinates.

(B) it has a thick wall and grows into a new rhizopus.

(C) it has a thin wall and grows into a new rhizopus.

(D) it has a thick wall and pollinates.

Ans: (B) it has a thick wall and grows into a new rhizopus.

Q2. A common bacterial infection that spreads through sexual contact in human beings is 

(A) Gonorrhoea 

(B) AIDS 

(C) Hepatitis B 

 (D) Warts

Ans: (A) Gonorrhoea 

Q3. The process of producing new individuals in rhizopus is 

(A) spore formation 

(B) fragmentation 

(C) budding 

(D) regeneration

Ans: (A) spore formation 

Q4. Part of flower that develops into fruit and part of the seed that develops into root respectively are 

(A) Ovary and Plumule 

(B) Plumule and radicle 

(C) Ovary and radicle 

(D) Ovary and ovule

Ans: (C) Ovary and radicle

Q5. Organisms that reproduce sexually are more likely to survive in their environment. Because in sexual reproduction these organisms, 

(A) do not produce any variations.

(B) will not have any errors during DNA replication.

(C) will have the same body structure in all generations.

(D) will have the maximum number of successful variations in the subsequent generations.

Ans: (D) will have the maximum number of successful variations in the subsequent generations.

Q6. the sequential stages that occur in the sexual reproduction of flowering plants are 

(A) pollination, fertilization, seed, embryo

(B) seed, embryo, fertilization, pollination

(C) embryo, seed, pollination, fertilization

(D) pollination, fertilization, embryo, seed

Ans: (D) pollination, fertilization, embryo, seed

Q7. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood with the help of special structure called 

(A) Fallopian tube

(B) Ovary

(C) Uterus

(D) Placenta

Ans: (D) Placenta

Q8. In the given figure of Cotyledon the parts labelled as A and B respectively are 

(A) fruit, shoot 

(B) primary shoot, primary root

(C) secondary root, primary shoot

(D) bud, leaf.

Ans: (B) primary shoot, primary root

Q9. The common passage for both sperms and urine in human male reproductive system is (July 2021)

(A) Urethra 

(C) Vas deferens

(B) Ureter 

(D) Urinary bladder

Ans: (A) Urethra

Q10. The parts that develop into fruit and seed in a flower respectively are

(A) stamen and ovary   

(B) ovary and ovule

(C) ovule and ovary

(D) stamen and ovule

Ans: (B) ovary and ovule

Q11. In the human female reproductive system, the egg is carried from ovary to the uterus through this part

(A) cervix 

(B) fallopian tube

(C) placenta 

(D) vagina

Ans: (B) fallopian tube

Q12. A common bacterial infection that spreads through sexual contact in human beings is 

(A) Gonorrhea 

(B) AIDS

(C) Hepatitis-B 

(D) Warts

Ans: (A) Gonorrhea

Q13. In humans, sexually transmitted viral infection is 

(A) AIDS 

(B) Syphilis

(C) Tuberculosis 

(D) Gonorrhea

Ans: (A) AIDS

Q14. Part of a flower in the plant that develops into fruit is 

(A) petal 

(B) stigma

(C) ovary 

(D) style.

Ans: (C) ovary

Q15. AIDS : Virus : : Warts : _____

(A) Bacteria 

(B) Fungus

(C) Protozoan 

(D) Virus

Ans: (D) Virus

Q16. In humans, the testes are located outside the lower abdomen in the scrotum because 

(A) to protect testes from mechanical shocks 

(B) to increase the production of sperms 

(C) to maintain the secretion of testosterone hormone 

(D) to maintain the temperature required for sperm production. 

Ans. : (D) to maintain the temperature required for sperm production. 

Q17. Biological process that has been shown in the diagram is 

(A) production of progenies by fragmentation method

(B) production of progenies by multiple fission method

(C) regeneration of tissues by development in specialised cells

(D) asexual reproduction by vegetative propagation.

Ans. : (C) regeneration of tissues by development in specialised cells

Q18. The flower that can undergo self pollination among below given figures of flower is

(A) ‘P’ only Total 

(B) ‘R’ only 

(C) Both ‘P’ and ‘R’ 

(D) ‘Q’ only 

 Ans. : (D) ‘Q’ only 

Q19. The type of reproduction during plasmodium is

(A) budding       

(B) fragmentation

(C) vegetative propagation 

(D) multiple fission

Ans: (D) multiple fission

Q20. Observe the female reproductive structures given in figure A and figure B. The correct statement related to these figure is. 

(A) Fertilization of egg is possible in both of the structures

(B) Fertilization of egg is possible only in the structure of figure-B

(C) Fertilization of egg is possible only in the structure of figure-A

(D) Fertilization of egg is not possible in both of the structures.

Ans: (C) Fertilization of egg is possible only in the structure of figure-A

Q21. Type of asexual reproduction that occurs in spirogyra is 

(A) Budding 

(B) Regeneration 

(C) Binary fission 

(D) Fragmentation

Ans. : (D) Fragmentation  

Q22. The information source for making proteins in the cells is 

(A) Gene 

(B) Chromosome   

(C) DNA 

(D) Ribosome 

Ans. : (C) DNA 

Q23. The part of the male reproductive system that produces sperms is 

(A) Seminal vesicle 

(B) Testis 

(C) Scrotum 

(D) Penis

Ans. : (B) Testis 

Q24. A common bacterial infection that spreads through sexual contact in human beings is 

A) Gonorrhoea 

(C) Hepatitis-B 

(B) AIDS  

(D) Genital warts 

Ans. : (A) Gonorrhoea 

   HEREDITY   

Q1. In a zygote there are 24 pairs of chromosomes. Then the number of chromosomes present in the gametes are 

 (A) 24 pairs 

 (B) 48 

 (C) 6 pairs 

 (D) 24 

Ans: (D) 24

 Q2. The correct statement is about gene among the following is/are 

 (i) It is an unit of DNA. 

 (ii) It is the source of information for protein.

(iii) A single gene synthesizes several proteins. 

 (iv) It functions as an enzyme. 

(A) (i) only 

(B) (i) and (ii) only 

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only 

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only 

Ans: (B) (i) and (ii) only

Q3. The generation in which Mendel performed cross pollination is 

(A) Parent 

(B) Ovary 

(C) F2 

(D) F3 

Ans: (A) Parent

Q4.  A pure dominant pea plant producing round - yellow seeds is crossed with pure recessive pea plant producing wrinkled - green seeds. The number of plants bearing round - green seeds in the F1 generation of Mendel‘s experiment is 

(A) 0 

(B) 1 

(C) 3 

(D) 9     

Ans: (A) 0

Q5. Observe the table which shows contrast forms of pea plants  

The genetic makeup with green seed and terminal flowers is indicated as 

(A) gGAa 

(B) GgAa 

(C) GgAA 

(D) Ggaa

Ans: (D) Ggaa

Q6. If a round green seeded pea plant [ RRyy ] is crossed with wrinkled yellow seeded pea plant [ rrYY ], the seeds produced in F1 generation are 

(A) round and green seeds

(B) round and yellow seeds

(C) wrinkled and yellow seeds

(D) wrinkled and green seeds

Ans: (B) round and yellow seeds

Q7. Tall pea plants having round seeds ( TTRR ) are crossed with dwarf pea plants having wrinkled seeds ( ttrr ). The progeny obtained in F1 generation is 

(A) Tall plants having wrinkled seeds

(B) Dwarf plants having round seeds

(C) Tall plants having round seeds

(D) Dwarf plants having wrinkled seeds

Ans: (C) Tall plants having round seeds

Q8. The genotypic ratio of F2 generation of Mendel‘s monohybrid cross experiment is 

(A) 3 : 1 

(B) 1 : 2 : 1

(C) 2 : 1 

(D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 

Ans: (B) 1 : 2 : 1

Q9. A trait that cannot be inherited among the following is

(A) Shape of the eye 

(B) Colour of the hair 

(C) Type of the blood group 

(D) Playing skills

Ans: (D) Playing skills

Q10. If a trait is appeared in the progenies of many generations, then the trait must be

(A) dominant trait 

(B) recessive trait 

(C) acquired trait 

(D) intermediate trait

Ans: (A) dominant trait 

Q11. In a zygote there are 23 pairs of chromosomes. Then, the number of chromosomes present in the normal cell of parent organism is 

(A) 24 pairs 

(B) 23 pairs 

(C) 46 pairs 

(D) 12 pairs 

Ans. : (B) 23 pairs 

   Our Environment   

Q1. Observe the food chain given below :Grass → Grass hopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle. If the energy available at first tropic level is 5000 J, then the amount of energy available for snake is 

(A) 500J 

(B) 5J 

(C) 0·5J 

(D) 50j

Ans: (B) 5J

Q2. The correct statement with respect to biodegradable substances among the following. These substances 

(A) undergo recycling naturally in the environment

(B) harm various organisms in the ecosystem

(C) increase the density of harmful chemicals in different tropic levels

(D) remain inert in the environment for a long time

Ans: (A) undergo recycling naturally in the environment

Q3. The materials that change slowly their form and structure in the environment are (Sep 2021)

(A) Plant fibres

(B) Peels of vegetables

(C) Waste papers

(D) Used tea leaves

Ans: (A) Plant fibres

Q4. Atmospheric layer that absorbs ultraviolet radiations coming from the sunlight is made up of this molecule. 

(A) N2 

(B) H2 

(C) O3 

(D) O2

Ans: (C) O3

Q5. Primary consumers in any food chain are always 

(A) carnivores

(B) herbivores

(C) higher carnivores

(D) producers.

Ans: (B) herbivores

Q6. The materials that take more time to change their forms and structure are 

(A) DDT, BHC, Insecticide

(B) Waste paper, torn cotton clothes

(C) Vegetable peels, used tea leaves

(D) Medicine bottle, milk pocket 

Ans: (A) DDT ,BHC ,insecticides

Q7. Algae → Small insects → Large insects → Small fish → Large fish → Human. The arrangement of trophic levels in this food chain are in the 

(A) increasing order of energy availability.

(B) increasing order of both energy availability and storage of harmful chemicals.

(C) increasing order of storage of harmful chemicals.

(D) decreasing order of both energy availability and storage of harmful chemicals. 

Ans: (C) increasing order of storage of harmful chemicals.

Q8. Producers of aquatic eco-system are 

(A) algae         

(B) small fishes       

C) larvae        

(D) protozoa.

Ans. : (A) algae

Q9. Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle ; The secondary consumer in this food chain is 

(A) Grasshopper Total 

(B) Snake 

(C) Frog 

(D) Eagle

Ans. : (C) Frog 

Q10. The second trophic level of a food chain consists of

 (A) Producers 

(B) Herbivores 

(C) Secondary consumer 

(D) Primary carnivores

Ans: (B) Herbivores

important MCQ-Class 10 Science CHEMISTRY

     CHEMISTRY     

  Chemical Reactions and Equations  

Q1. Silver chloride turns grey when exposed to sunlight. This is because silver chloride 

(A) decomposes to form silver. 

(C) combines with oxygen. 

(B) decomposes to form chlorine. 

(D) reacts with atmospheric moisture.

Ans: (A) decomposes to form silver. 

Q2. The type of chemical reaction in which reactants exchange their ions is 

 

(A) Double displacement 

 

(B) Displacement

 

(C) Decomposition 

 

(D) Combination 

Ans: (A) Double displacement 

Q3.

Analyse the experiment expressed in the above figure. The molecular formulae of the solution ‘Y’ that gives a yellow colour precipitate by reacting with KI solution and the another product that forms here respectively are. 

(A) Pb(NO3)2 and KNO3 

(B) PbI2 and KNO3 

(C) Pb(NO3)2 and KI 

(D) Pb(NO3)2 and K2SO4   

Ans: (B) PbI2 and KNO3

Q4. The metal that displaces copper from copper sulphate solution is 

 (A) mercury 

 (B) gold 

 (C) iron

 (D) silver 

Ans. : (C) iron

 

Q5. The gas liberated at the cathode in the electrolysis of water is

(A) Oxygen 

(B) Hydrogen      

(C) Chlorine 

(D) Nitrogen.  

Ans. : (B) Hydrogen

Q6. Fe2O3 + 2 Al → Al2O3 + 2 Fe The type of above chemical reaction is (June 2019)

A) combination reaction     

(B) double displacement reaction

(C) decomposition reaction   

(D) displacement reaction

Ans: (D) displacement reaction

Q7. The reactants that exchange ions by reacting with each other and form a precipitate among the following are

(A) BaCl2 and Na2SO4

(B) Al2O 3 and HCl

(C) NaOH and H2SO4

(D) Na2O and CO2

Ans. : (A) BaCl2 and Na2SO4

Q8. Chips manufacturers, flush bags of chips with nitrogen gas because, to

(A) prevent corrosion of chips

(B) prevent chips from getting oxidised

(C) make chips undergo rancidity

(D) prevent the chips from getting reduced.

Ans. : (B) prevent chips from getting oxidised

Q9. A type of chemical reaction in which a single product is formed by two or more reactants is  

(A) chemical decomposition        

(B) chemical combination

(C) chemical displacement           

(D) chemical double displacement 

Ans:  (B) chemical combination

Q10. Ferrous sulphate crystals lose green colour when heated. Because this compound 

(A) decomposes into simpler products

(B) loses water molecules

(C) releases sulphur dioxide gas

(D) produces brown fumes

Ans. : (B) loses water molecule

Q11. In the electrolysis of water the gases that are released at cathode and anode and their ratio respectively are, 

(A) Hydrogen:Oxygen ; 1:2               

(B) Oxygen:Hydrogen ; 2:1

(C) Hydrogen : Oxygen : 2:1               

(D) Oxygen : Hydrogen ; 1:2

Ans. : (C) Hydrogen : Oxygen ; 2:1

Q12. The electrolysis of water to form hydrogen and oxygen gases is 

 (A) an endothermic reaction 

(B) a displacement reaction 

(C) an exothermic reaction 

(D) a redox reaction 

Ans: (A) an endothermic reaction 

Q13. The reactants that exchange ions by reacting each other and form a precipitate among the following are 

(A) Aluminium oxide and hydrochloric acid 

(B) Sodium hydroxide and sulphuric acid 

(C) Aluminium oxide and hydrochloric acid 

(D) Barium chloride and sodium sulphate 

Ans: (D) Barium chloride and sodium sulphate 

Q14. ZnO + C → Zn + CO ; the reactants that are oxidised and reduced in this chemical reaction respectively are 

(A) ZnO and C 

(B) C and ZnO 

(C) Zn and CO 

(D) Co and Zn 

Ans: (B) C and ZnO

Q15. 2AgCl → 2Ag+ Cl; the type of this chemical reaction is 

(A) Combination reaction 

(C) Decomposition reaction 

(B) Displacement reaction 

(D) Double displacement reaction 

Ans: (C) Decomposition reaction 

Q16. The gas flushed to the bags containing chips is 

(A) Hydrogen  

(B) Oxygen 

(C) Chlorine 

(D) Nitrogen 

Ans. : (D) Nitrogen

Q17. 

In this chemical reaction, 

(A) hydrogen is reduced to form water

(B) exchange of ions took place between the reactants

(C) copper oxide is oxidised to form copper

(D) copper oxide is reduced to form copper

Ans. : (D) copper oxide is reduced to form copper

Q18. Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu

The above reaction is an example for 

(A) Endothermic reaction

(B) Precipitation reaction

(C) Displacement reaction

(D) Double displacement reaction

Ans. :  (C) Displacement reaction

Q19. An example for the chemical change among the following is 

(A) Dissolving of salt in water 

(B) Tearing of paper 

(C) Rusting of iron 

(D) Boiling of water 

Ans. : (C) Rusting of iron 

Q20. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe 

Choose the correct answer confirming displacement 

(A) Aluminium changes into a gas. 

(B) Iron is obtained as a product. 

(C) Oxygen is released. 

(D) Water is formed.

Ans: (B) Iron is obtained as a product. 

Q21. A situation where chemical change occurs is, when 

(A) sugar is dissolved in water 

(B) paper is being torn 

(C) grape undergoes fermentation 

(D) water is boiled

Ans: (C) grape undergoes fermentation 

Q22. Zinc metal is added to the solution obtained by the chemical reaction between iron nail and the copper sulphate solution. A correct chemical equation that represents the reaction between that solution and zinc among the following is: 

 (A) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu 

(B) Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe 

 

(C) Cu + ZnSO4 → CuSO4 + Zn 

(D) Fe + ZnSO4 → FeSO4 + Zn

Ans: (B) Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe 

    Acids, Bases and Salts   

Q1. The chemical formula of bleaching powder is

(A) NaCl 

(B) Na2CO3 

(C) CaCO3 

(D) CaOCl2

Ans: (D) CaOCl2

Q2. As the pH value of a neutral solution increase, 

(A) basic property decreases and number of OH− ions increases.

(B) acidic property increases and number of H+ ions decreases.

(C) basic property increases and number of OH− ions increases.

(D) acidic property decreases and number of H+ ions increases.

Ans: (C) basic property increases and number of OH− ions increases.

Q3. When CO2 gas is passed through a clear solution of X, this solution milky. When CO2 supply is continued, this milky solution turns clear solution due to the formation of salt Y. In this reaction X and Y is. 

(A) Calcium carbonate and calcium hydroxide

(B) Calcium hydrogen carbonate and calcium chloride

(C) Calcium hydroxide and calcium hydrogen carbonate

(D) Calcium carbonate and calcium hydrogen carbonate

Ans: (C) Calcium hydroxide and calcium hydrogen carbonate

Q4. The chemical equation that represents neutralization reaction among the following is  

Ans: C

Q5. As the pH value of a solution increases. 

A) number of H+ ions increases

B) number of OH– ions increases

C) number of OH– ions decreases

D) equal number of H+ and OH– ions

Ans: B) number of OH– ions increases

Q6. The gas liberated when an acid reacts with a metal is: 

A. Hydrogen                  

B. Chlorine

C. Carbon dioxide        

D. Nitrogen dioxide

Ans: A. Hydrogen

Q7. The substance that converts red litmus paper into blue colour is 

(A) KOH Solution

(B) distilled water

(C) dilute solution of HCl

(D) concentrated solution of HNO3

 

Ans : (A) KOH Solution

Q8. The pH value of a solution that turns blue litmus paper into red colour is 

(A) 5        

(B) 7    

(C) 9       

(D) 14

Ans. :   (A) 5

Q9. A salt used to remove the permanent hardness of water is

(A) calcium sulphate hemihydrate 

(B) calcium oxychloride 

(C) sodium carbonate

(D) sodium hydrogen carbonate

Ans: (C) sodium carbonate

Q10. When excess of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in the same basic solution then

(A) the concentration of OH − ions increases 

(B) the concentration of H3O+ ions increases

(C) the pH value of the solution decreases 

(D) the concentration of OH − ions decreases.

Ans: (A) the concentration of OH − ions increases 

Q11. The gas liberated when dilute sulphuric acid is added to zinc is 

(A) Oxygen 

(B) Hydrogen 

(C) Nitrogen 

(D) Chlorine 

Ans. : (B) Hydrogen 

Q12. The gas released when metals react with dilute acids is 

(A) H2   (B) CO2     (C) SO2    (D) NO2 

Ans. : (A) H2 

Q13. The acid present in the stinging hair of nettle plant leaves is 

(A) Methanoic acid 

(B) Oxalic acid 

(C) Citric acid 

(D) Lactic acid

Ans: (A) Methanoic acid 

Q14. As the pH value of a neutral solution increases, 

(A) basic property decreases and number of OH− ions increases.

 

(B) acidic property increases and number of H+ ions decreases. 

(C) basic property increases and number of OH− ions increases. 

(D) acidic property decreases and number of H+ions increases.

Ans: (C) basic property increases and number of OH− ions increases. 

   Metals and Non Metals  

Q1. The constituent metals in brass are 

(A) copper and zinc 

(B) aluminium and tin 

(C) copper and tin 

(D) zinc and aluminium

Ans: (A) copper and zinc 

Q2. To make iron to be hard and strong 

(A) carbon is added to pure iron 

(B) zinc is added to pure iron

(C) fused with some other metals 

(D) anodization will be done

Ans: (A) carbon is added to pure iron

Q3. CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu

2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 +2Ag

(A) Copper is more reactive than iron and silver

(B) Iron is less reactive than copper and silver

(C) Copper is more reactive than silver but less reactive than iron

(D) Silver is more reactive than copper and iron.

Ans: (C) Copper is more reactive than silver but less reactive than iron

Q4. To make pure iron hard and strong, the substance that is to be added to it is

 

(A) carbon 

(B) zinc 

(C) nickel 

(D) tin

Ans: (A) carbon

Q5. A + Salt solution of B → Salt solution of A + B. A and B in this word equation are metals. These metals respectively are 

(A) copper and sodium 

(B) lead and aluminium

(C) Hydrogen with oxygen 

(D) magnesium and zinc

Ans: (D) magnesium and zinc

Q6. The possible chemical reaction among the following is 

Ans:  C

Q7. The electronic configuration of element X is 2, 8, 8, 1 and the electronic configuration of element Y is 2, 8, 7. Then the type of bond formed between these two elements is 

(A) covalent bond   

(B) hydrogen bond

(C) metallic bond    

(D) ionic bond

Ans: (D) ionic bond

Q8. The amphoteric oxide among the following is 

A) Potassium oxide   

B) Sodium oxide 

C) Calcium oxide        

D) Zinc oxide

Ans: D) Zinc oxide

Q9. Which of the following will give displacement reactions? 

 A) NaCl solution and Copper metal.

B) MgCl2 solution and Aluminium metal.     

C) FeSO4 solution and Silver metal.

D) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal.

Ans: D) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal.

Q10. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air; this is due to the formation of

a) silver sulphide

b) silver nitride

c)silver carbonate

d) silver oxide

Ans: a) silver sulphide

Q11. Aluminium, Iron, Magnesium and Zinc metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid. The series that indicates decreasing order of reactivity of these metals is 

(A) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe 

(B) Al > Mg > Fe > Zn 

(C) Fe > Zn > Al > Mg 

(D) Fe > Mg > Zn > Al

Ans. :  (A) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe 

Q12. The electronic configuration of the three elements P, Q and R respectively are 2, 8, 2 ; 2, 8 and 2, 8, 7. Among these, the elements that can react with each other to produce an ionic compound are 

(A) P and Q        

(B) P and R 

 (C) Q and R       

(D) P, Q and R 

Ans. : (B) P and R 

Q13. The metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature is (July 2023)

 (A) Mercury          (B) Silver 

(C) Sodium            (D) Gold 

Ans. : (A) Mercury 

Q14. An alloy that is made up of copper and zinc is

 (A) solder metal   

(B) bronze 

 (C) brass               

(D) stainless steel

Ans: (C) brass

Q15. The gas liberated when sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is

(A) Carbon dioxide 

(B) Nitrogen 

(C) Hydrogen 

(D) Nitrogen dioxide

Ans: (A) Carbon dioxide 

Q16. Electronic configurations of the elements A, B and C respectively are 2, 8, 2 ; 2, 8 and 2, 8, 7. Among these the elements that can react each other to form an ionic compound are

(A) Elements A and B 

(B) Elements B and C 

(C) Elements A and C 

(D) Elements A, B and C

Ans: (C) Elements A and C

Q17. To make pure iron hard and strong, 

(A) it will be fused with some other metals 

(B) anodisation will be done 

(C) zinc will be added 

(D) carbon will be added in definite proportion 

Ans. : (D) carbon will be added in definite proportion 

Q18. The most ductile metal is 

(A) Gold 

(B) Silver 

(C) Copper 

(D) Iron 

Ans: (A) Gold 

Q19. The surface of silver materials exposed to the air for a long time turns black. The component of the air responsible for this change is 

(A) Oxygen 

(B) Carbon di oxide 

(C) Sulphur 

(D) Nitrogen

Ans: (C) Sulphur 

Q20. To make pure iron hard and strong, the substance that is to be added to it is 

(A) carbon 

(B) zinc 

(C) nickel 

(D) tin

Ans: (A) carbon 

  CARBON AND IT'S COMPOUNDS   

Q1. A property of carbon that is responsible for giving rise large molecules is 

(A) tetravalency 

(B) catenation 

(C) inflammability 

(D) allotropism

Ans: (B) catenation 

Q2. The functional group present in pentanal is

(A) - OH 

(B) - CHO 

(C) - COOH 

(D) - CO -

Ans: (B) - CHO 

Q3. Another structure with the same molecular formula of the compound in the following structural Formulas 

Ans: (D)

Q4. The ′𝒙′ in the following reaction represents, 

(A) K2Cr2O7 

(B) KMnO4 

(C) NaOH 

(D) KOH

Ans: (B) KMnO4 

Q5. Number of single bonds found in the molecular structure of propanal is 

 (A) 8      

(C) 7    

(B) 6    

(D) 5

Ans. : (A) 8

Q6. Identify the correct electron dot structure of nitrogen molecule in the following 

Q7. The name and the molecular formula of the unsaturated hydrocarbon having general formula CnHn2 and containing 3 carbon atoms is 

(A) propane, C3H8

(B) Cyclopropane, C3H6

(C) Propyne, C3H4   

(D) Propene, C3H6

Ans. : (D) Propene, C3H6.

Q8. An example for saturated hydrocarbon is

(A) C2H6   

(B) C3H4   

(C) C2H2 

(D)  C2H4

Ans. : (A) C2H6

Q9. The molecular formula of three carbon compounds which are in homologous series are C2H6, C3H8, C4H10. The suitable general formula for these compounds is 

Q10. The functional groups present in propanol and propanal respectively are

(A) — OH  and  — CHO

(B) — OH  and  — COOH

(C) — CHO  and  — COOH

(D) — CHO  and  — CO

Ans:  (A) — OH  and  — CHO

Q11. The hydrocarbon that undergoes addition reaction among the following is 

A. C2 H6   

B. C3 H8    

C. CH4  

D. C3 H6

Ans: D. C3 H6

Q12.                                                                                                

Q13. Organic compounds obtained by the reaction between carboxylic acid and alcohol are 

(A) Aldehydes     

(B) Ketones

 

(C) Esters              

(D) Hydrocarbons

 

Ans. : (C) Esters 

Q14. The molecular formula of propanal is 

Q15. Correct statement related to the soaps among the following is, soaps 

(A) easily give excess of foam in hard water

 

(B) form insoluble precipitate in hard water

 

(C) easily clean oils like dirt in hard water

 

(D) are sodium salts of sulphonic acid 

Ans. : (B) form insoluble precipitate in hard water 

Q16. In a homologous series of compounds containing alcohols, the first member is CH3OH. Then the third member of the same series will be 

Q17. The unique property of carbon to form a large molecule by forming bonds with other carbon atoms is 

(A) Tetravalency 

(B) Inflammability 

(C) Catenation 

(D) Allotropism 

Ans. : (C) Catenation 

Q18. The difference between molecular formula of two successive compounds in a homologous series is 

(A) C2H4    (B) CH4    (C) C2H2   (D) CH2

Ans. : (D) CH2 

Q19. Carbon bonds with other carbon atoms to form large molecules. This unique property of  carbon is 

(A) Saponification 

(B) Catenation 

(C) Hydrogenation 

(D) Esterification

Ans: (B) Catenation

Q20. The functional group present in propanoic acid is 

(A) -CO 

(B) -OH 

(C) -CHO 

(D) -COOH

Ans: (D) -COOH

3. An unsaturated compound that has triple bond between carbon atom is (MQP 3)

 (A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Ethene (D) Ethyne