Unit Test | Heredity | Class 10 Science

MG SCHOOL SCIENCE

UNIT TEST – HEREDITY

Class 10 | Science | Chapter 8

25 Marks Advanced Level NCERT Based

Competency-Based Assessment

Name: ____________________

Class & Section: __________

Roll Number: ______________

Date: ____________________

Time: 45 Minutes

Maximum Marks: 25

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper contains five sections: A, B, C, D and E.
3. Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
4. Use appropriate genetic symbols in inheritance problems.
5. Write answers clearly and scientifically.

TOTAL MARKS: 25 | TOTAL QUESTIONS: 15

SECTION A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 4 × 1 = 4 Marks

Choose the correct answer.

1 Mark

1. In a population of sexually reproducing organisms, variations are mainly produced due to:

1. Only DNA copying errors
2. Combining genetic material from two parents
3. Absence of chromosomes
4. Identical genetic material in all offspring

1 Mark

2. In Mendel's monohybrid cross, the F1 generation obtained by crossing pure tall (TT) and pure short (tt) pea plants will have:

1. All short plants
2. Half tall and half short plants
3. All tall plants (Tt)
4. All medium-height plants

1 Mark

3. Which of the following represents the genotype of a heterozygous tall pea plant?

1. TT
2. tt
3. Tt
4. TTtt

1 Mark

4. In human beings, which parent determines the sex of the child through the sex chromosome contributed?

1. Mother only
2. Father only
3. Both always contribute Y
4. Neither parent

SECTION B – ONE MARK QUESTIONS 5 × 1 = 5 Marks

1 Mark

5. Define heredity.

Answer: __________________________________________

1 Mark

6. What is a gene?

Answer: __________________________________________

1 Mark

7. Name the scientist who proposed the fundamental laws of inheritance through experiments on pea plants.

Answer: __________________________________________

1 Mark

8. What is meant by a recessive trait?

Answer: __________________________________________

1 Mark

9. Write the sex chromosome combination of a human male.

Answer: __________________________________________

SECTION C – TWO MARK QUESTIONS 3 × 2 = 6 Marks

2 Marks

10. Why are variations important for the survival of a species? Explain with an example.

________________________________________________

________________________________________________

2 Marks

11. Differentiate between dominant and recessive traits with one suitable example each.

Dominant Trait	Recessive Trait
________________	________________
________________	________________

2 Marks

12. Why does each germ cell contain only one set of chromosomes? What happens when male and female germ cells fuse?

________________________________________________

________________________________________________

SECTION D – THREE MARK QUESTIONS 2 × 3 = 6 Marks

3 Marks

13. Explain Mendel's monohybrid cross between a pure tall pea plant (TT) and a pure short pea plant (tt). Show the F1 and F2 generations and write the phenotypic ratio in F2.

Complete the genetic cross:

Parent generation: TT × tt

F1 generation: __________________

F2 generation: __________________

Phenotypic ratio: _________________

3 Marks

14. Explain how sex is determined in human beings using the XX–XY chromosome system. Why is there approximately a 50% chance of having a boy or a girl?

________________________________________________

________________________________________________

________________________________________________

SECTION E – FOUR MARK QUESTION 1 × 4 = 4 Marks

4 Marks

15. A pea plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) is crossed with a plant having wrinkled green seeds (rryy).

Answer the following:

1. Write the gametes produced by both parental plants. (1)
2. Write the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation. (1)
3. What is the significance of the new combinations of traits in the F2 generation? (1)
4. State the phenotypic ratio obtained in the typical F2 dihybrid cross. (1)

Parent cross:

RRYY × rryy

↓

F1: ___________________

F1 self-cross: __________

F2 ratio: ______________

END OF QUESTION PAPER
CHECK YOUR ANSWERS BEFORE SUBMISSION

ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS

Teacher's Reference – Detailed Solutions

SECTION A – MCQ ANSWERS

1. Correct answer: B – Combining genetic material from two parents.

Sexual reproduction produces greater variation because genetic material from two parents is combined.

2. Correct answer: C – All tall plants (Tt).

The dominant allele T expresses tallness in all F1 offspring.

3. Correct answer: C – Tt.

A heterozygous organism contains two different alleles for a trait.

4. Correct answer: B – Father only.

The mother contributes an X chromosome. The father contributes either X or Y.

SECTION B – ONE MARK ANSWERS

5. Define heredity.

Heredity is the transmission of traits and characteristics from parents to offspring through genetic material.

6. What is a gene?

A gene is a section of DNA that provides information for making a particular protein.

7. Name the scientist.

Gregor Johann Mendel.

8. What is a recessive trait?

A recessive trait is expressed only when both copies of the allele are recessive, as in tt.

9. Sex chromosome combination of a human male.

XY.

SECTION C – TWO MARK ANSWERS

10. Importance of variations.

1. Variations help some individuals survive better under changing environmental conditions.
2. For example, heat-resistant bacteria can survive better during a heat wave than bacteria that cannot withstand high temperatures.

11. Difference between dominant and recessive traits.

Dominant Trait	Recessive Trait
Expressed even when one dominant allele is present.	Expressed only when both alleles are recessive.
Tallness (T)	Shortness (t)

12. Why does each germ cell contain one set of chromosomes?

1. Each germ cell receives only one chromosome from each pair.
2. When male and female germ cells fuse during fertilisation, the normal paired chromosome number is restored in the offspring.

SECTION D – THREE MARK ANSWERS

13. Mendel's monohybrid cross.

Mendel crossed a pure tall pea plant (TT) with a pure short pea plant (tt).

PARENT GENERATION

TT × tt

Gametes: T and t

↓

F1 GENERATION

All Tt (Tall)

↓ Self-pollination

F2 GENERATION

	T	t
T	TT	Tt
t	Tt	tt

Genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1

Phenotypic ratio = 3 Tall : 1 Short

Conclusion: Tallness is dominant over shortness.

14. Sex determination in human beings.

1. Females have XX sex chromosomes, while males have XY sex chromosomes.
2. The mother always contributes an X chromosome. The father contributes either an X or a Y chromosome.
3. Fertilisation with an X-bearing sperm produces XX (female), while fertilisation with a Y-bearing sperm produces XY (male). Both possibilities have approximately equal probability.

Sex determination cross

	Father X	Father Y
Mother X	XX – Female	XY – Male
Mother X	XX – Female	XY – Male

Expected ratio = 1 Female : 1 Male

SECTION E – FOUR MARK ANSWER

15. Dihybrid cross – Inheritance of two traits.

(a) Gametes:

RRYY produces RY gametes.

rryy produces ry gametes.

(b) F1 generation:

RRYY × rryy → RrYy

All F1 plants have round yellow seeds.

(c) Significance of new combinations:

Independent inheritance of seed shape and seed colour produces new combinations in F2, such as round green and wrinkled yellow seeds.

(d) F2 phenotypic ratio:

Phenotype	Ratio
Round yellow	9
Round green	3
Wrinkled yellow	3
Wrinkled green	1

Final ratio = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

TOTAL: 25 / 25 MARKS
WELL DONE!

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Unit Test How do Organisms Reproduce | Class 10 Science

MG SCHOOL SCIENCE

UNIT TEST – 07

HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?

Class 10 | Science | Biology

25 MARKS

Board Exam Preparation

Maximum Marks
25

Time Duration
50 Minutes

Total Questions
15

Student Name: __________________________

Class & Section: ____________ Roll No: __________

Date: __________________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Read each question carefully.
3. Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever required.
4. Use appropriate scientific terminology.
5. Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (5 × 1 = 5 Marks)

1. Which method of reproduction is observed in Amoeba? 1 Mark

Budding Binary fission Fragmentation Spore formation

Correct answer: (B) Binary fission.

2. Which part of a flower produces pollen grains? 1 Mark

Stigma Ovary Anther Style

Correct answer: (C) Anther.

3. The fusion of male and female gametes is called: 1 Mark

Pollination Fertilisation Germination Fragmentation

Correct answer: (B) Fertilisation.

4. Which contraceptive method also helps prevent sexually transmitted infections? 1 Mark

Copper-T Oral pills Condoms Surgical methods

Correct answer: (C) Condoms.

5. Which of the following is the female reproductive part of a flower? 1 Mark

Stamen Pistil Anther Filament

Correct answer: (B) Pistil (carpel).

SECTION B – ONE MARK QUESTIONS (4 × 1 = 4 Marks)

6. Define pollination. 1 Mark

Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower.

7. What is vegetative propagation? 1 Mark

Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in which new plants develop from vegetative parts such as roots, stems or leaves.

8. Name the male reproductive organ of a flower. 1 Mark

Stamen.

9. What is fertilisation? 1 Mark

Fertilisation is the fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote.

SECTION C – TWO MARK QUESTIONS (3 × 2 = 6 Marks)

10. Write two differences between sexual and asexual reproduction. 2 Marks

Sexual reproduction: Involves fusion of male and female gametes and usually involves two parents. It produces genetic variations.

Asexual reproduction: Involves a single parent and no fusion of gametes. Offspring are generally genetically similar to the parent.

11. What is the importance of DNA copying during reproduction? 2 Marks

1. DNA copying transfers hereditary information from parents to offspring.
2. Small variations during DNA copying contribute to genetic diversity, which is important for the survival and evolution of species.

12. Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination. 2 Marks

Self-pollination: Pollen grains are transferred to the stigma of the same flower or another flower on the same plant.

Cross-pollination: Pollen grains are transferred from a flower on one plant to a flower on another plant of the same species.

SECTION D – THREE MARK QUESTIONS (2 × 3 = 6 Marks)

13. Explain the process of fertilisation in flowering plants. 3 Marks

1. After pollination, a pollen grain lands on the stigma and germinates.
2. A pollen tube grows through the style towards the ovary and enters an ovule.
3. The male gamete travels through the pollen tube and fuses with the egg cell to form a zygote. The zygote develops into an embryo.

14. Explain the functions of the following parts of the human male reproductive system: (a) Testes (b) Vas deferens (c) Prostate gland. 3 Marks

(a) Testes: Produce sperms and the hormone testosterone.

(b) Vas deferens: Transports sperms from the epididymis towards the urethra.

(c) Prostate gland: Adds fluid to semen, helping nourish and protect sperms and supporting their movement.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK QUESTION (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

15. Draw a neat labelled diagram showing germination of a pollen grain and growth of the pollen tube through the style towards the ovule. Answer the following: 4 Marks

(a) Draw the germinating pollen grain and pollen tube. (2 Marks)

(b) Label stigma, style, pollen tube and ovule. (1 Mark)

(c) What is the function of the pollen tube? (1 Mark)

Draw your diagram in the space below:

Your browser does not support canvas.

Use your finger or mouse to draw and label the pollen germination diagram.

KEY ANSWERS:

(a) Draw a pollen grain germinating on the stigma with a pollen tube growing down through the style towards the ovary and ovule.

(b) Label:

• Stigma
• Style
• Pollen grain
• Pollen tube
• Ovary
• Ovule

(c) The pollen tube carries the male gametes from the pollen grain towards the ovule for fertilisation.

YOUR TEST RESULT

0 / 5

Automatic evaluation covers five MCQs (5 marks). Descriptive answers and the pollen tube diagram require teacher evaluation (20 marks).

COMPLETE KEY ANSWERS – TEACHER'S REFERENCE

SECTION A – MCQ ANSWERS
1. B – Binary fission
2. C – Anther
3. B – Fertilisation
4. C – Condoms
5. B – Pistil

SECTION B – ONE MARK ANSWERS

6. Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma.
7. Vegetative propagation is reproduction through roots, stems or leaves.
8. Stamen.
9. Fusion of male and female gametes.

SECTION C – TWO MARK ANSWERS

10. Sexual reproduction involves gamete fusion and generally produces variations; asexual reproduction involves one parent without gamete fusion.
11. DNA copying transfers hereditary information and introduces variations that contribute to genetic diversity.
12. Self-pollination occurs within the same plant; cross-pollination occurs between different plants of the same species.

SECTION D – THREE MARK ANSWERS

13. Pollen grain germinates on the stigma, pollen tube grows through the style into the ovary, and male gamete travels to the ovule and fuses with the egg cell.
14. Testes produce sperms and testosterone; vas deferens transports sperms; prostate gland contributes fluid to semen.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK ANSWER

Germination of Pollen Grain and Growth of Pollen Tube – Labelled Diagram

Explanation:

1. Pollen grain lands on a compatible stigma and germinates.
2. A pollen tube grows through the style towards the ovary.
3. The male gametes travel through the pollen tube into the ovule.
4. One male gamete fuses with the egg cell during fertilisation.

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Class 10 Science – How Do Organisms Reproduce?

Unit Test | Control And Coordination | Class 10 Science

MG SCHOOL SCIENCE

UNIT TEST – 06

CONTROL AND COORDINATION

Class 10 | Science | Biology

25 MARKS

Board Exam Preparation

Maximum Marks
25

Time Duration
50 Minutes

Total Questions
15

Student Name: __________________________

Class & Section: ____________ Roll No: __________

Date: __________________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Read every question carefully.
3. Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever required.
4. Use appropriate scientific terminology.
5. Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (5 × 1 = 5 Marks)

1. Which part of the brain controls body balance and posture? 1 Mark

Cerebrum Cerebellum Medulla Hypothalamus

Correct answer: (B) Cerebellum.

2. Which hormone regulates blood sugar level? 1 Mark

Thyroxine Adrenaline Insulin Testosterone

Correct answer: (C) Insulin.

3. The structural and functional unit of the nervous system is: 1 Mark

Nephron Neuron Alveolus Villus

Correct answer: (B) Neuron.

4. Which plant hormone promotes cell elongation? 1 Mark

Auxin Abscisic acid Cytokinin Ethylene

Correct answer: (A) Auxin.

5. Which part of the brain controls involuntary activities such as blood pressure and vomiting? 1 Mark

Cerebrum Cerebellum Medulla oblongata Spinal cord

Correct answer: (C) Medulla oblongata.

SECTION B – ONE MARK QUESTIONS (4 × 1 = 4 Marks)

6. What is a reflex action? 1 Mark

A reflex action is a quick, automatic and involuntary response to a stimulus.

7. Name the hormone secreted by the thyroid gland. 1 Mark

Thyroxine.

8. What is a synapse? 1 Mark

A synapse is the junction between two neurons, across which nerve impulses are transmitted using chemical neurotransmitters.

9. Name the plant hormone responsible for the ripening of fruits. 1 Mark

Ethylene.

SECTION C – TWO MARK QUESTIONS (3 × 2 = 6 Marks)

10. Write two differences between nervous control and hormonal control. 2 Marks

Nervous control: Messages are transmitted through electrical impulses along neurons. It is generally rapid and short-lived.

Hormonal control: Messages are transmitted through hormones carried by blood. It is generally slower and may have longer-lasting effects.

11. What happens when a person touches a hot object? Explain the reflex pathway. 2 Marks

Receptors in the skin detect heat and send impulses through a sensory neuron to the spinal cord. The spinal cord passes impulses through a motor neuron to the muscles, which contract and withdraw the hand.

12. Mention any two functions of the cerebrum. 2 Marks

1. It controls voluntary actions such as walking and writing.
2. It is involved in thinking, memory, intelligence and interpretation of sensory information.

SECTION D – THREE MARK QUESTIONS (2 × 3 = 6 Marks)

13. Explain how the nervous system brings about coordination in human beings. 3 Marks

1. Receptors detect stimuli from the external or internal environment.
2. Sensory neurons carry nerve impulses to the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord).
3. The central nervous system processes information and sends instructions through motor neurons to effectors such as muscles or glands.

14. Explain the role of plant hormones in plant growth and development. Give three examples. 3 Marks

1. Auxin: Promotes cell elongation and is involved in phototropism.

2. Gibberellins: Promote stem growth and seed germination.

3. Cytokinins: Promote cell division.

Other acceptable example: Abscisic acid inhibits growth and promotes dormancy.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK QUESTION (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

15. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the human brain and answer the following: 4 Marks

(a) Draw the human brain showing its major parts. (2 Marks)

(b) Label cerebrum, cerebellum and medulla oblongata. (1 Mark)

(c) Name the part of the brain responsible for maintaining body balance and posture. (1 Mark)

Draw your diagram in the space below:

Your browser does not support canvas.

Use your finger or mouse to draw and label the human brain.

KEY ANSWERS:

(a) Draw a neat side-view diagram of the human brain.

(b) Label the following:

• Cerebrum
• Cerebellum
• Medulla oblongata

(c) Cerebellum.

YOUR TEST RESULT

0 / 5

Automatic evaluation covers five MCQs (5 marks). Descriptive answers and the brain diagram require teacher evaluation (20 marks).

COMPLETE KEY ANSWERS – TEACHER'S REFERENCE

SECTION A – MCQ ANSWERS
1. B – Cerebellum
2. C – Insulin
3. B – Neuron
4. A – Auxin
5. C – Medulla oblongata

SECTION B – ONE MARK ANSWERS

6. Reflex action is a quick, automatic and involuntary response to a stimulus.
7. Thyroxine.
8. Synapse is the junction between two neurons.
9. Ethylene.

SECTION C – TWO MARK ANSWERS

10. Nervous control is generally rapid and short-lived; hormonal control is generally slower and longer-lasting.
11. Receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Effector.
12. The cerebrum controls voluntary actions and is responsible for thinking, memory and sensory interpretation.

SECTION D – THREE MARK ANSWERS

13. Receptors detect stimuli, sensory neurons transmit impulses to the CNS, and motor neurons carry instructions to effectors.
14. Auxin promotes cell elongation, gibberellins promote stem growth and seed germination, and cytokinins promote cell division.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK ANSWER

Human Brain – Labelled Reference Diagram

Important functions:

• Cerebrum: Thinking, memory, intelligence and voluntary actions.
• Cerebellum: Maintains posture and balance and coordinates voluntary muscular movements.
• Medulla oblongata: Controls involuntary activities such as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting.

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Class 10 Science – Control and Coordination

Unit Test | Life Processes | Class 10 Science

MG SCHOOL SCIENCE

UNIT TEST – 05

LIFE PROCESSES

Class 10 | Science | Biology

25 MARKS

Board Exam Preparation

Maximum Marks
25

Time Duration
50 Minutes

Total Questions
15

Student Name: __________________________

Class & Section: ____________ Roll No: __________

Date: __________________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Read each question carefully.
3. Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever required.
4. Use appropriate scientific terms.
5. Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (5 × 1 = 5 Marks)

1. Which pigment is responsible for photosynthesis in plants? 1 Mark

Haemoglobin Chlorophyll Melanin Insulin

Correct answer: (B) Chlorophyll.

2. Which enzyme is present in saliva? 1 Mark

Pepsin Trypsin Salivary amylase Lipase

Correct answer: (C) Salivary amylase.

3. The functional unit of the kidney is: 1 Mark

Neuron Nephron Alveolus Villus

Correct answer: (B) Nephron.

4. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart? 1 Mark

Pulmonary artery Vena cava Pulmonary vein Aorta

Correct answer: (C) Pulmonary vein.

5. In human beings, the exchange of gases takes place in: 1 Mark

Trachea Bronchi Alveoli Larynx

Correct answer: (C) Alveoli.

SECTION B – ONE MARK QUESTIONS (4 × 1 = 4 Marks)

6. Define nutrition. 1 Mark

Nutrition is the process by which organisms obtain food and utilise it for energy, growth, repair and maintenance.

7. What is the function of stomata? 1 Mark

Stomata help in the exchange of gases and regulate water loss through transpiration.

8. Name the respiratory pigment present in human blood. 1 Mark

Haemoglobin.

9. What is transpiration? 1 Mark

Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of plants, mainly through stomata.

SECTION C – TWO MARK QUESTIONS (3 × 2 = 6 Marks)

10. Write two differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. 2 Marks

Aerobic respiration: Takes place in the presence of oxygen and releases more energy.
Anaerobic respiration: Takes place without oxygen and releases less energy.

11. Why is the separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood necessary in human beings? 2 Marks

It prevents mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood, ensuring efficient oxygen supply to body tissues. This is important to meet the high energy requirements of humans.

12. Mention two functions of the small intestine. 2 Marks

1. It completes the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
2. It absorbs digested nutrients through finger-like projections called villi.

SECTION D – THREE MARK QUESTIONS (2 × 3 = 6 Marks)

13. Explain the process of photosynthesis. Write its balanced chemical equation. 3 Marks

Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants prepare food using carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.

The main requirements are sunlight, chlorophyll, carbon dioxide and water.

6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

14. Explain the mechanism of breathing in human beings. 3 Marks

Inhalation: The diaphragm contracts and flattens. The ribs move upwards and outwards. The chest cavity volume increases, pressure decreases and air enters the lungs.

Exhalation: The diaphragm relaxes and becomes dome-shaped. The ribs move downwards and inwards. The chest cavity volume decreases, pressure increases and air moves out.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK QUESTION (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

15. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the human heart and answer the following: 4 Marks

(a) Draw the four chambers of the human heart. (2 Marks)

(b) Label the aorta, vena cava, pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein. (1 Mark)

(c) Name the blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. (1 Mark)

Draw your diagram in the space below:

Your browser does not support canvas.

Use your finger or mouse to draw and label the heart diagram.

Key Answers:

(a) The human heart has four chambers:

• Right atrium
• Right ventricle
• Left atrium
• Left ventricle

(b) Correctly label:

• Aorta
• Vena cava
• Pulmonary artery
• Pulmonary vein

(c) Pulmonary vein.

YOUR TEST RESULT

0 / 5

Automatic evaluation covers five MCQs (5 marks). Descriptive answers and the heart diagram require teacher evaluation (20 marks).

COMPLETE KEY ANSWERS – TEACHER'S REFERENCE

SECTION A – MCQ ANSWERS
1. B – Chlorophyll
2. C – Salivary amylase
3. B – Nephron
4. C – Pulmonary vein
5. C – Alveoli

SECTION B – ONE MARK ANSWERS

6. Nutrition is the process of obtaining and utilising food.
7. Stomata help in gaseous exchange and transpiration.
8. Haemoglobin.
9. Loss of water vapour from aerial parts of plants.

SECTION C – TWO MARK ANSWERS

10. Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen and releases more energy; anaerobic respiration occurs without oxygen and releases less energy.
11. Separation prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and ensures efficient oxygen supply to tissues.
12. Small intestine completes digestion and absorbs nutrients through villi.

SECTION D – THREE MARK ANSWERS

13. Photosynthesis uses sunlight and chlorophyll to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.
    6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂
14. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and the chest cavity expands. During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and the chest cavity volume decreases.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK ANSWER

Human Heart – Labelled Reference Diagram

Important: In a standard front-view anatomical heart diagram, the right side of the heart appears on the viewer's left.

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Class 10 Science – Life Processes

Unit Test | Carbon And It's Compounds | Class 10 Science

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UNIT TEST – 04

CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS

Class 10 | Science | Chemistry

25 MARKS

Board Exam Preparation

Maximum Marks
25

Time Duration
50 Minutes

Total Questions
15

Student Name: ______________________________

Class & Section: ______________ Roll No: __________

Date: ______________________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Read each question carefully.
3. Write balanced chemical equations wherever necessary.
4. Draw electron-dot structures wherever required.
5. Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (5 × 1 = 5 Marks)

1. The valency of carbon is: 1 Mark

1 2 3 4

Correct answer: (D) 4. Carbon is tetravalent.

2. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon? 1 Mark

Ethene Ethyne Ethane Propene

Correct answer: (C) Ethane. It contains only single covalent bonds.

3. Which functional group is present in ethanol? 1 Mark

–COOH –OH –CHO –CO–

Correct answer: (B) –OH, the hydroxyl group.

4. The molecular formula of ethanoic acid is: 1 Mark

CH₃OH C₂H₆ CH₃COOH C₂H₂

Correct answer: (C) CH₃COOH.

5. Which allotrope of carbon is the hardest naturally occurring substance? 1 Mark

Graphite Diamond Coal Charcoal

Correct answer: (B) Diamond.

SECTION B – ONE MARK QUESTIONS (4 × 1 = 4 Marks)

6. What is catenation? 1 Mark

The unique property of carbon atoms to form bonds with other carbon atoms, forming long chains, branched chains or rings, is called catenation.

7. Write the molecular formula of methane. 1 Mark

CH₄.

8. Name the functional group present in carboxylic acids. 1 Mark

Carboxyl group (–COOH).

9. What is the common name of ethanoic acid? 1 Mark

Acetic acid.

SECTION C – TWO MARK QUESTIONS (3 × 2 = 6 Marks)

10. Why does carbon form covalent bonds? Give two reasons. 2 Marks

1. Carbon has four electrons in its outermost shell.
2. It cannot easily lose or gain four electrons because of the large energy required. Therefore, it shares electrons to complete its octet and forms covalent bonds.

11. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Give one example of each. 2 Marks

Saturated hydrocarbons: Contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. Example: Ethane (C₂H₆).

Unsaturated hydrocarbons: Contain at least one double or triple bond between carbon atoms. Example: Ethene (C₂H₄).

12. What happens when ethanol reacts with sodium? Write the balanced chemical equation. 2 Marks

Ethanol reacts with sodium to produce sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas.

2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂↑

SECTION D – THREE MARK QUESTIONS (2 × 3 = 6 Marks)

13. Explain the chemical properties of ethanol with suitable chemical equations. 3 Marks

(a) Reaction with sodium:
2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂

(b) Oxidation:
CH₃CH₂OH + 2[O] → CH₃COOH + H₂O
(Using an oxidising agent such as alkaline KMnO₄ or acidified K₂Cr₂O₇.)

(c) Dehydration:
C₂H₅OH → C₂H₄ + H₂O
(Concentrated H₂SO₄ at 443 K.)

14. Explain the cleansing action of soap with the help of micelle formation. 3 Marks

1. A soap molecule has a hydrophilic ionic head and a hydrophobic hydrocarbon tail.
2. The hydrophobic tails attach to oil and grease, while the hydrophilic heads remain in water.
3. Soap molecules form structures called micelles, trapping dirt and grease inside. The dirt is then washed away with water.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK QUESTION (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

15. Answer the following questions about carbon compounds: 4 Marks

(a) What is a homologous series? (1 Mark)

(b) Write the molecular formula of the third member of the alkane series. (1 Mark)

(c) What is esterification? (1 Mark)

(d) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between ethanoic acid and ethanol. (1 Mark)

(a) A homologous series is a family of organic compounds having the same functional group and general formula, with successive members differing by a –CH₂– unit.

(b) Propane – C₃H₈.

(c) The reaction between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol to form an ester and water is called esterification.

(d)

CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O

(Concentrated H₂SO₄ is used as a catalyst.)

YOUR TEST RESULT

0 / 5

Automatic evaluation covers five MCQs (5 marks). Descriptive answers require teacher evaluation (20 marks).

COMPLETE KEY ANSWERS – TEACHER'S REFERENCE

SECTION A – MCQ ANSWERS
1. D – 4
2. C – Ethane
3. B – Hydroxyl group
4. C – CH₃COOH
5. B – Diamond

SECTION B – ONE MARK ANSWERS

6. Catenation is the ability of carbon to form bonds with other carbon atoms.
7. CH₄.
8. Carboxyl group (–COOH).
9. Acetic acid.

SECTION C – TWO MARK ANSWERS

10. Carbon shares electrons to complete its octet because losing or gaining four electrons is energetically unfavourable.
11. Saturated compounds have only single carbon-carbon bonds; unsaturated compounds have double or triple carbon-carbon bonds.
12. Ethanol reacts with sodium to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas: 2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂.

SECTION D – THREE MARK ANSWERS

13. Reaction with sodium, oxidation and dehydration of ethanol. Refer to the balanced equations in Question 13.
14. Soap has hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. It forms micelles around oily dirt, which is removed during washing.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK ANSWER

15. (a) Homologous series: A family of compounds with the same functional group and general formula.
    (b) Propane – C₃H₈.
    (c) Esterification is the formation of an ester from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.
    (d) CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O.

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Class 10 Science – Carbon and Its Compounds

Unit Test | Metals And Non Metals | Class 10 Science

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UNIT TEST – 03

METALS AND NON-METALS

Class 10 | Science | Chemistry

25 MARKS

Board Exam Preparation

Maximum Marks
25

Time Duration
50 Minutes

Total Questions
15

Student Name: ______________________________

Class & Section: ______________ Roll No: __________

Date: ______________________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Read each question carefully.
3. Write balanced chemical equations wherever necessary.
4. Use appropriate chemical symbols and formulae.
5. Marks are indicated against each question.

SECTION A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (5 × 1 = 5 Marks)

1. Which of the following metals is stored in kerosene oil? 1 Mark

Iron Copper Sodium Aluminium

Correct answer: (C) Sodium. Sodium reacts vigorously with air and moisture.

2. Which of the following is the most reactive metal? 1 Mark

Gold Potassium Copper Silver

Correct answer: (B) Potassium.

3. Which non-metal is a good conductor of electricity? 1 Mark

Sulphur Phosphorus Graphite Oxygen

Correct answer: (C) Graphite.

4. Which gas is produced when metals react with dilute acids? 1 Mark

Oxygen Hydrogen Nitrogen Carbon dioxide

Correct answer: (B) Hydrogen. Note: The metal must be sufficiently reactive to displace hydrogen from the acid.

5. Which method is used to extract highly reactive metals like sodium? 1 Mark

Reduction with carbon Electrolysis Roasting Heating in air

Correct answer: (B) Electrolysis of molten sodium chloride.

SECTION B – ONE MARK QUESTIONS (4 × 1 = 4 Marks)

6. Define malleability. 1 Mark

The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability.

7. Name the non-metal which is liquid at room temperature. 1 Mark

Bromine.

8. What is an alloy? 1 Mark

An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal.

9. Name the metal used in galvanisation of iron. 1 Mark

Zinc.

SECTION C – TWO MARK QUESTIONS (3 × 2 = 6 Marks)

10. Why do ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points? 2 Marks

Ionic compounds contain oppositely charged ions held together by strong electrostatic forces of attraction. A large amount of energy is required to overcome these forces, so they have high melting and boiling points.

11. What happens when iron nails are placed in copper sulphate solution? Write the balanced chemical equation. 2 Marks

Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution because iron is more reactive than copper. The blue solution turns green and a reddish-brown deposit of copper forms on the nails.

Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu

12. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of any two physical properties. 2 Marks

1. Metals are generally lustrous, whereas non-metals are generally non-lustrous.
2. Metals are generally malleable and ductile, whereas solid non-metals are generally brittle.

SECTION D – THREE MARK QUESTIONS (2 × 3 = 6 Marks)

13. Explain the reaction of metals with oxygen, water and dilute acids with suitable chemical equations. 3 Marks

(a) Reaction with oxygen:
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

(b) Reaction with water:
2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

(c) Reaction with dilute acid:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

14. Explain the extraction of metals from their ores according to their position in the reactivity series. 3 Marks

1. Highly reactive metals: Extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds. Example: Sodium.

2. Moderately reactive metals: Their ores are generally converted into oxides by roasting or calcination and then reduced using carbon or carbon monoxide. Example: Zinc.

3. Low reactive metals: Their oxides can often be reduced by heating. Some metals, such as gold, occur in the native state.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK QUESTION (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

15. Answer the following questions: 4 Marks

(a) What is corrosion? (1 Mark)

(b) What is the chemical name of rust? (1 Mark)

(c) Mention two methods to prevent corrosion of iron. (1 Mark)

(d) Why is aluminium used for making cooking utensils? (1 Mark)

(a) The gradual destruction of metals due to their reaction with air, moisture or chemicals is called corrosion.

(b) Hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe₂O₃·xH₂O.

(c) Painting and galvanisation. Other acceptable methods include oiling, greasing and electroplating.

(d) Aluminium is a good conductor of heat, is lightweight and forms a protective oxide layer that resists corrosion.

YOUR TEST RESULT

0 / 5

Automatic evaluation covers five MCQs (5 marks). Descriptive answers require teacher evaluation (20 marks).

COMPLETE KEY ANSWERS – TEACHER'S REFERENCE

SECTION A – MCQ ANSWERS
1. C – Sodium
2. B – Potassium
3. C – Graphite
4. B – Hydrogen
5. B – Electrolysis

SECTION B – ONE MARK ANSWERS

6. Malleability: Ability of metals to be beaten into thin sheets.
7. Bromine.
8. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal.
9. Zinc.

SECTION C – TWO MARK ANSWERS

10. Strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions require large amounts of energy to overcome.
11. Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu.
12. Metals are generally lustrous and malleable, while non-metals are generally non-lustrous and brittle in solid form.

SECTION D – THREE MARK ANSWERS

13. Reaction with oxygen: 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO.
    Reaction with water: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂.
    Reaction with acid: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂.
14. Highly reactive metals – electrolysis.
    Moderately reactive metals – reduction of their oxides.
    Low reactive metals – heating or occurrence in native state, depending on the metal.

SECTION E – FOUR MARK ANSWER

15. (a) Corrosion is the gradual destruction of metals by environmental reactions.
    (b) Hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe₂O₃·xH₂O.
    (c) Painting and galvanisation.
    (d) Aluminium is a good conductor of heat, lightweight and corrosion-resistant due to its protective oxide layer.

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Class 10 Science – Metals and Non-metals